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How would evaluate the the following limit:

$$\lim_{n\to\infty} \frac {1}{n^{\frac{2}{n}}}$$

Would $n^{\frac{2}{n}} = n^0$ If this can not be evaluated like this, could I use l'hopitals rule, and if so how?

user123
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  • If $\lim_{n\to\infty}n^\frac{1}{n}=x$ (assuming it exists), then the limit in question is just $\frac{1}{x^2}$ – Aweygan Feb 14 '17 at 21:20
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    Did you understand the answers of your question before. You are doing the same mistake! –  Feb 14 '17 at 21:20
  • how would I use lhopitals rule then? – user123 Feb 14 '17 at 21:21
  • Nobody told you to apply L'Hospital... –  Feb 14 '17 at 21:22
  • i am not sure with the exponents – user123 Feb 14 '17 at 21:23
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    Just to clear it up for you so that you do not make the same mistake as last time (because we want you to grow, not rely on us), it is never the case that we can simply say $$\lim_{n\to\infty}f(n)^{g(n)}=\lim_{n\to\infty}f(n)^{\lim_{k\to\infty}g(k)}$$Especially if it returns indefinite forms. – Simply Beautiful Art Feb 14 '17 at 21:30

3 Answers3

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Hint:

$$1 \leqslant n^{1/n} = \exp\left( \frac{\log n}{n}\right) = \exp\left( \frac{2\log \sqrt{n}}{n}\right) \leqslant \exp\left( \frac{2\sqrt{n}}{n}\right) = \exp\left( \frac{2}{\sqrt{n}}\right) $$

RRL
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Similar to RRL's:

By Bernoulli's inequality, $(1+\frac1{n^{1/2}})^n \ge 1+\frac{n}{n^{1/2}} \gt n^{1/2} $.

Raising to the $2/n$ power, $n^{1/n} \le (1+\frac1{n^{1/2}})^2 =1+\frac{2}{n^{1/2}}+\frac1{n} <1+\frac{3}{n^{1/2}} $.

Therefore $n^{2/n} <(1+\frac{3}{n^{1/2}})^2 =1+\frac{3}{n^{1/2}}+\frac{9}{n} =1+\frac{12}{n^{1/2}} $.

Note: It is possible to show by similar elementary methods that, for any integer $k > 1$, there is a $c(k)$ such that $n^{1/n} < 1+\frac{c(k)}{n^{1-1/k}} $ for large enough $n$.

marty cohen
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I will show that $\lim\limits_{n\to\infty}n^\frac{1}{n}=1$. Then from the continuity of the function $f(x)=\frac{1}{x^2}$ at $x=1$, it will follow that The limit in question is equal to $1$.

Let us write $x_n=n^\frac{1}{n}-1$. Note that $x_n\geq0$ for all $n\geq1$. Then we have $$n=(x_n+1)^n=\sum_{k=0}^n\binom{n}{k}x_n^k\geq1+\frac{n(n-1)}{2}x_n^2,$$ so that $$0\leq x_n\leq\sqrt{\frac{2}{n}}\to0$$ as $n\to\infty$. Thus $0=\lim\limits_{n\to\infty}x_n=\lim\limits_{n\to\infty}\left(n^\frac{1}{n}-1\right)$ and therefore $\lim\limits_{n\to\infty}n^\frac{1}{n}=1$.

Aweygan
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