Suppose ${{A_1}}$=[1,3] and ${{A_2}}$=[2,4], then ${{A_1} \cup {A_2}}$=[1,4] now $\sup \left( {{A_1} \cup {A_2}} \right)$ is clearly 4. so, $\sup \left( {{A_1} \cup {A_2}} \right) = \max \left( {\sup {A_1},\sup {A_2}} \right)$ is true.
Confusion with definition:
s is least upper bound for a set $A \subseteq R$ if two criterion are met
(1) s is an upper bound for A
(2) if b is any upper bound for A, then $s \le b$
In the proof if I take ${s_1}$ to be ${\sup {A_1}}$ and ${s_2}$ to be ${\sup {A_2}}$, then if I apply definition then least of ${s_1}$ and ${s_2}$ is $\sup \left( {{A_1} \cup {A_2}} \right)$, which is certainly not true. What is exactly am I missing here?
Then once proved how can I extend it to $\sup \left( { \cup _{k = 1}^n{A_k}} \right)$ ? May be if i get clear with the base case then it will not be required.
Edit:
${{A_1}}$ and ${{A_2}}$ are nonempty sets which are bounded above.