I read the proof that $\mathbb{Q}(\sqrt2)$ is isomorphic to $\mathbb{Q}(\sqrt3)$ and it makes since. However I cannot understand what is wrong with the following map $\varphi$.
$$ \varphi:\mathbb{Q}(\sqrt2) \to\mathbb{Q}(\sqrt3) $$ defined by $$ \varphi(a+b\sqrt2)\mapsto a+b\sqrt3. $$ and this is a 1-1 map and has the properties $$ \varphi(a+b)=\varphi(a)+\varphi(b) \\ \varphi(ab)=\varphi(a)\varphi(b) $$ My error will be appreciated.