If $x$ is rational: There exists $\frac{a}{b}$ such that $a$, $b$ are integers.
If $x^2$ is natural:
$\left(\frac{a}{b}\right)^2$ is natural => $\frac{a^2}{b^2}$ is natural
Then $a^2$ divides $b^2$ => $a$ divides $b$
If $a$ divides $b$ and $a$, $b$ are integers, $\frac{a}{b}$ is integer
so $x$ is integer.
Then a^2 divides b^2 => a divides b
You've got that backwards, it'sb^2
that dividesa^2
. Then you need to justify why $b^2 \mid a^2 \implies b \mid a,$. – dxiv Jan 17 '17 at 18:22