I am meant to find the derivative of $\arctan(x)$ from the definition of derivative of an inverse function $(1/(f '(f^{-1}(x)))$.
Well, I have found this question asked and explained, however all the explanations said that $(\tan(x))' = \sec^2(x)$.
I have never met with the $\sec$ function, so i have been trying to make it work with the formula $(\tan(x))' = 1/(\cos^2(x))$ instead. Thus writing this down:
$$\begin{align} ((f^{-1})(x)) &= \arctan (x)\\[1ex] (f(x)) &= \tan (x)\\[1ex] (f '(x)) &= \frac1{\cos^2 x} \end{align}$$
So from the inverse derivative formula the equation should look something like this:
$$(\arctan(x))' = \frac1{\frac1{\cos^2(\arctan x)}}$$
I rewrote the right side to
$$\frac{\sin^2(\arctan x)}{\tan^2(\arctan x)}$$
which equals
$$\frac{\sin^2(\arctan x)}{x^2}$$
And that is pretty much the furthest I can get, so if you could show me where I've done a mistake or how to go on with my solution, I'd be really thankful.