There's an issue with defining $(x!)'$, in that the factorial function $f(x) = x!$ isn't continuous, so can't be differentiable.
To fix this, we can define the Gamma function. For integers, we have that $\Gamma(x) = (x-1)!$, but by defining this as:
$$\Gamma(z) = \int_0^\infty x^{z-1}e^{-x}dx$$
You can verify that this gives the correct result for integers by repeatedly integrating by parts.
Now, we can ask, what's the derivative of $\Gamma(z)$? This is defined in terms of something called the polygamma function, which (unfortunately) is defined as:
$$\psi^{(n)}(z) = \frac{d^{m+1}}{dz^{m+1}}\ln(\Gamma(z))$$
Especially, we have that:
$$\psi^{(0)}(z) = \frac{\Gamma'(z)}{\Gamma(z)}$$
So, we have that:
$$\Gamma'(z) = \psi^{(0)}(z) \Gamma(z)$$
In terms of the definition I gave you, this is unenlightening. But, on integer arguments we can recover the following (by using an alternative expression for $\psi^{(0)}$, similar to the expression $x! = \Gamma(x+1)$ for $\Gamma$):
$$(n!)' = \Gamma'(n+1) = \underbrace{\left(-\gamma+\sum_{k = 1}^{n}\frac{1}{k}\right)}_{\psi^{(0)}(n+1)}(n+1)!$$
where $\gamma\approx 0.57721$ is the Euler-Mascheroni constant.
For further reading, the Gamma function and Polygamma function articles are fairly useful.
\Gamma
vs.\gamma
). And in that case, have you tried differentiating that function instead of the factorial? – Arthur Jan 14 '17 at 07:44