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The statement in the title seems obviously true to me, but I can't quite prove it. Any suggestions would be appreciated.

MJD
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DDD
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2 Answers2

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Hint $\ $ By Euclid's Lemma $\rm\ (b,a)=1,\,\ b\:|\:ak\:\Rightarrow\:b\:|\:k\:\Rightarrow\: b \le k < a$

Bill Dubuque
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If $ka$ is a multiple of $b, ka=bc$ for some integer $c$.

$\implies c=\frac{ka}{b} \implies b\mid k$ as $(a,b)=1$

But as $a<b$ and $k<a\implies k<b, b$ can not divide $k$.