So yeah, the entire question is pretty much in the title. $$p \rightarrow q \vdash \lnot(p \land \lnot q)$$
I've been able to derive the reverse, but I don't how to logically go from the premise to the conclusion using natural deduction only. I can see that the two formulas are equal using transformations.
These are the rules I'm allowed to use:
Please help me understand how to do this.