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I need help on proving $(1)$. $$I=\int_{0}^{\pi\over 4}\arctan{(\cot^2{x})}\mathrm dx={2\pi^2-\ln^2({3+2\sqrt{2})}\over 16}\tag1$$ This is what I have attempted;

Enforcing a sub: $u=\cot^2{x}$ then $du=-2\cot{x}\csc^2{x}dx$

Recall $1+\cot^2{x}=\csc^2{x}$

$$I={1\over2}\int_{1}^{\infty}\arctan{u}\cdot{\mathrm dx\over u^{1/2}+u^{3/2}}$$

Recall $u^3+1=(u+1)(u^2-u+1)$

$$I={1\over2}\int_{1}^{\infty}\arctan{u}\left({A\over u^{1/2}}+{B\over u+1}+{Cu+D\over u^2-u+1}\right)\mathrm du$$

I am stuck at this point.

Can anyone help to prove $(1)$?

  • Where do you get these integrals from? 2) If you let $u=\cot x$ you almost end up with the integral you posted yesterday (I have not seen if that leads all the way).
  • – mickep Jan 11 '17 at 07:10
  • @mickep do I get a cup of tea if I tell you where I got the idea of this integral from? http://math.stackexchange.com/questions/1287169/a-curious-equation-containing-an-integral-int-0-pi-4-arctan-left-tanx-the –  Jan 11 '17 at 07:30
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    Providing such information may improve your chance of getting an answer. For instance, your link clearly shows the relationship between your integral and the Legendre chi function, which indeed turns out to be a crucial hint toward the computation. – Sangchul Lee Jan 11 '17 at 07:45