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Apologies if this has been asked before, since it seems rather simple. I enjoy messing around with formal mathematics, and I once derived the following formula which holds for many functions (see my question here; no-one has yet responded to my request for criteria describing for which $q(x)$ it holds):

$$\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}q(n)=\int_{0}^{\infty}q(s)ds-\sum_{k=1}^{\infty}\frac{B_{k}q^{[k-1]}(0)}{k!}\tag{*}$$

where $B_n$ are the Bernoulli numbers. Using this formula with $q(x)=\frac{x}{e^x-1}$ and the identities $\int_0^\infty \frac{x^{s-1}}{e^x-1}=\Gamma(s)\zeta(s)$ and $\frac{x}{e^x-1}=\sum\limits_{n=0}^\infty \frac{B_n}{n!}x^n$, it was easy to show (since $\lim\limits_{n\rightarrow\infty}{\frac{n}{e^n-1}}=0$) that:

$$\sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac{n}{e^n-1}=\frac{\pi^2}{6}-1-\sum_{n=0}^\infty \frac{B_n B_{n+1}}{n!(n+1)!}$$

But the odd Bernoulli numbers are zero past $n=3$ so that we get:

$$\sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac{n}{e^n-1}=\frac{\pi^2}{6}-\frac{11}{24}\tag{1}$$

Now this is very accurate indeed; Wolfram Alpha declares the error to be on the order of $10^{-16}$. Further, using $(*)$ for $q(x)=\frac{x^{2m+1}}{e^x-1}$ in a similar manner gives:

$$\sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac{n^{2m+1}}{e^n-1}=\Gamma(2m+2)\zeta(2m+2)-\sum_{n=0}^\infty \frac{B_n B_{2m+n+1}}{n!(2m+n+1)!}$$

which simplifies to:

$$\sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac{n^{2m+1}}{e^n-1}=(2m+1)!\zeta(2m+2)+\frac{B_{2m+2}}{2(2m+2)!}\tag{2}$$

For $m=1$ this gives:

$$\sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac{n^3}{e^n-1}=\frac{\pi^4}{15}-\frac{1}{1440}$$

which Wolfram Alpha declares to have an error on the order of $10^{-3}$. The $m=2$ case appears to also have an error on the order of $10^{-3}$.

If we use $q(x)=\frac{bx}{e^{bx}-1}$ in $(*)$ and then set $b=\ln{a}$ then I think we get the following purported identity:

$$\sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac{n}{a^n-1}=\frac{\pi^2}{6(\ln{a})^2}-\frac{1}{2\ln{a}}+\frac{1}{24}\tag{3}$$

The accuracy of $(3)$ appears extremely good; e.g. for $a=2$ it is $10^{-16}$, for $a=3$ it is $10^{-15}$, and for $a=6$ it is still $10^{-9}$. All of this makes me believe that these formula are not exactly correct, but their accuracy amazes me. I don't know if what's going on in this question has any relevance here.

My questions are: Can anyone confirm that all of the highlighted expressions are in fact only approximations, or are some of them actually correct? What in general are the error terms for $(2)$ and $(3)$? Can anyone explain why these expressions are in fact so accurate?

Anon
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  • The linked question in your post is fully relevant here. – Paramanand Singh Jan 09 '17 at 08:35
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    These series have closed forms in terms of q-Polygamma functions. For example, we can easily show that $$\sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac{n}{e^n-1}=\sum_{k=1}^\infty \frac{e^k}{(e^k-1)^2}=\psi_e^{(1)}(1)-1$$ The more general sums in your title can be similarly deduced in terms of these functions – Yuriy S Jan 09 '17 at 09:00
  • @YuriyS So does that mean that $(1)$ is not correct, but just a very good approximation? – Anon Jan 13 '17 at 04:10
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    @Anon, yes, there really is error of about $2.8 \times 10^{-16}$. Even your title says 'approximations' so what did you expect? The exact value up to $30$ digits is: $$1.18660073351489282058550012820$$ While your approximation gives: $$1.18660073351489310313908183331$$ – Yuriy S Jan 13 '17 at 07:10
  • @YuriyS Thank you for your reply. I was expecting approximations, but just thought I'd clarify. Do you know why $\frac{\pi^2}{6}-\frac{11}{24}$ should be such a good approximation? – Anon Jan 13 '17 at 07:20
  • (*) is Euler-McLauren summation formula. – Martin Nicholson Feb 18 '17 at 12:06
  • @Nemo I know it's similar, but without the remainder term. I'm not sure what the remainder term should be in this case though. – Anon Feb 21 '17 at 00:39
  • Strangely enough I just posted a very similar question to this! I too was experimenting with these sorts of sums and arrived similar approximations via umbral methods. If you are interested my question can be found here: https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/2872627/approximations-to-series-of-ramanujan-type – FofX Aug 06 '18 at 05:39

1 Answers1

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Let $q = e^{-1}$ then $$\sum_{n = 1}^{\infty}\frac{n}{e^{n} - 1} = \sum_{n = 1}^{\infty}\frac{nq^{n}}{1 - q^{n}} = \frac{1 - P(q)}{24}$$ where $P(q)$ is a famous Ramanujan's function. It is known from the theory of elliptic and theta functions that if $q = \exp(-\pi K'/K)$ then $$P(q) = \left(\frac{2K}{\pi}\right)^{2}\left(\frac{6E}{K} + k^{2} - 5\right)$$ Note that in your case $q = 1/e$ so that $K'/K = 1/\pi$ and hence there is no explicit known form for $k$ and thereby it is difficult to evaluate the sum in closed form.

Similarly if $s$ is an odd positive integer then the value of $$F(q) = \sum_{n = 1}^{\infty}\frac{n^{s}q^{n}}{1 - q^{n}}$$ is expressible in terms of $K, k, \pi$ where $q = \exp(-\pi K'/K)$. Evaluation of such sums in closed form is possible if $q = e^{-\pi\sqrt{r}}$ for some positive integer $r$ because in that case $k$ is algebraic and $K$ can be evaluated for at least some values of $r$. Also note that your sum uses $n = 0$ for which the denominator vanishes and it should be treated as $n \to 0$ instead of $n = 0$. Thus $n/(e^{n} - 1) \to 1$ as $n \to 0$.

The background material on elliptic and theta functions (including Ramanujan's functions) is covered in my blog and it does require some patience to understand the theory completely. See some answers to similar questions here and here.

  • +1 Thank you very much for your answer showing me where the field of maths lies that answers these sorts of questions. I will have a good look into this stuff. However, I won't mark it as the accepted answer, since my real question (what the mathematical reason is why these identities, especially $(1)$ and $(3)$, are so accurate) remains unanswered. – Anon Jan 13 '17 at 00:48
  • Also, thanks for pointing out that I shouldn't have $n=0$; that was a mistake on my part. – Anon Jan 13 '17 at 01:46
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    @Anon: I can understand your concern. And yes my answer does not deal with the approximations you have found. The basis of your approximation formula is Euler-Maclaurin summation formula. – Paramanand Singh Jan 13 '17 at 02:31