Can anyone help to determine the domain of the function $f(x)$ for which the integral has a value of one?
$$\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}{1\over (\pi{x}+f(x))^2+1}dx=1\tag1$$
And how can one show $(1)$ has a value of 1 for any valid $f(x)$?
Setting $f(x)=\tan{x}$
$$\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}{1\over (\pi{x}+\tan{x})^2+1}dx=1\tag2$$
Which had been proven here
I have tried and set $f(x)$ to varies functions such as $\cos{x}$,$e^{x}$, $x\cos{x}$,... according to wolfram integrator it works fine.
I could try: enforcing $u=\pi{x}+f(x)$ then $du=\pi+f^{'}(x)dx$
$$\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}{1\over (1+x^2)(\pi+f^{'}(x))}du\tag3$$
which maybe of similiar to this post