I have a question about this thread on MO, in which it is written in the answer:
Here is a simple example: take $K_1=\mathbb{Q}(i)$ and $K_2=\mathbb{Q}(\sqrt{-5})$. Then both $K_1/\mathbb{Q}$ and $K_2/\mathbb{Q}$ are (totally) ramified at $p=2$ and $K_1\cap K_2=\mathbb{Q}$, but $F=K_1K_2$ is not totally ramified at $2$. […]
[We have] $I_1=D_1=G_1$ and $I_2=D_2=G_2$ (in your notation) but […] the inertia in the compositum has order $2$ […].
I don't understand why the inertia in the compositum has order $2$. According to Ribenboim, Classical Theory of Algebraic Numbers, chapter 14, proposition E, p. 263, we have :
Let $K \subset F,F' \subset L=FF'$ be number fields such that $F/K$ and $F'/K$ are Galois. If $F \cap F' = K$ then $$I_P(L/K) \cong I_{P \cap F}(F/K) \times I_{P \cap F'}(F'/K)$$ and $$D_P(L/K) \cong D_{P \cap F}(F/K) \times D_{P \cap F'}(F'/K)$$
where $P$ is a prime of $L$ above a prime $\mathfrak p$ of $K$, $I(\cdot)$ is the inertia group, and $D(\cdot)$ the decomposition group.
Maybe the answer on MO was focused on $K_1K_2/K_2$, because when he is writing "the inertia in the compositum has order $2$", it can't be talking about $I_P(K_1K_2/\Bbb Q)$ which has order $4$ by Ribenboim's theorem. Or am I wrong somewhere?
But I agree that it seems very strange when Ribenboim is writing on page 264 (see the link above) : $$\dfrac{Z_{P}(L/K)}{T_P(L/K)} \cong \dfrac{Z_{P_F}(F/K)}{T_{P_F}(F/K)} \times \dfrac{Z_{P_{F'}}(F'/K)}{T_{P_{F'}}(F'/K)}$$ where $Z$ denotes the decomposition group and $T$ the inertia group [cont.]
– Watson Jan 06 '17 at 09:25So I'm still really confused.
– Watson Jan 06 '17 at 09:25