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I am not a mathematician, could you please tell me whether,

$(\Sigma_A) * (\Sigma_B)^{-1} $ is positive-definite or not?

Where $\Sigma_A$ and $\Sigma_B$ are covariance matrices of A and B. And, "A" and "B" are two real general matrices with dimensions [mxn].

I am programming something and it is important to know whether the eigenvalues of the above multiplications are always positive or not.

NEO
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1 Answers1

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$\Sigma_A \Sigma_B^{-1}$ will not always be positive definite, since it will not generally be symmetric. However, it will have positive eigenvalues, and these eigenvalues are the same as those of the matrix $\Sigma_B^{-1/2}\Sigma_A\Sigma_B^{-1/2}$, which is positive definite.

Ben Grossmann
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