I am not a mathematician, could you please tell me whether,
$(\Sigma_A) * (\Sigma_B)^{-1} $ is positive-definite or not?
Where $\Sigma_A$ and $\Sigma_B$ are covariance matrices of A and B. And, "A" and "B" are two real general matrices with dimensions [mxn].
I am programming something and it is important to know whether the eigenvalues of the above multiplications are always positive or not.