The first part of the statement is false, because if we let $x_n=(-1)^n$ and $y_n=(-1)^{n+2}$, which are both divergent sequences, but $x_ny_n=(-1)^n(-1)^{n+2}=(-1)^{2n+2}$ is convergent to 1.
But I think the second part of this statement is true. To prove the second part, suppose $x_n \rightarrow L$ and $y_n \rightarrow M$ for some $L,M \in \mathbb{R}$. Now, let $N \in \mathbb{N}$ such that $n \geq N$ implies $|x_n-L| \lt \epsilon$ and $|y_n-M| \ \lt \epsilon$ where $N$ corresponds to $\epsilon \gt 0$.
$|(x_n-L)(y_n-M)|=|(x_n-L)||(y_n-M)| \lt \epsilon^2 \lt \epsilon$, which is true when $0 \lt \epsilon \lt 1$.
Expanding the two factors,
$|(x_n-L)(y_n-M)| = |x_ny_n-x_nM-y_nL+LM|=$
$|x_ny_n-x_nM-y_nL+LM-2LM+2LM|$ =
$|x_ny_n-LM-x_nM+LM-y_nL+LM|=$
$|x_ny_n-LM-M(x_n-L)-L(y_n-M)| \geq |x_ny_n-LM| - |M(-x_n+L)|-|L(-y_n+M)| =\\ |x_ny_n-LM| - |M||(-x_n+L)|-|L||(-y_n+M)| $
Since $|x_n-L| \lt \epsilon$ and $|y_n-M| \lt \epsilon$, the last two terms will go to $0$. Thus, we are left with
$|x_ny_n-LM| \leq |(x_n-L)(y_n-M)| \lt \epsilon^2 \lt \epsilon$.
Only thing that bothers me is my restriction for values of $\epsilon.$ To be exact, $\epsilon \geq 1$ should also be allowed, but for that case, my proof won't work. But I thought since $\epsilon$ is some number that is very very small, I assumed I could do such restriction. Is this okay to do?
Edit: Also, I used $|a-b| \geq |a|-|b|$, is this true?