Let $N=pq$ for $p,q$ prime.
If $\gcd(a,N)=1$ and $\gcd(b,N)=1$ is it true that $\gcd(ab,N)=1$
That is to say that $a$ and $N$ being coprime, and $b$ and $N$ being coprime, implies that $ab$ and $N$ are coprime.
Could someone give me a simple proof either way please?