Consider the following limit. $$\lim_{x\to0} [\ln(1+\sin^2(x))\cdot\cot(\ln^2(1+x))]$$
According to me the answer should be $0$ by directly putting the value of $x$. But the answer given as $1$. How ?
Consider the following limit. $$\lim_{x\to0} [\ln(1+\sin^2(x))\cdot\cot(\ln^2(1+x))]$$
According to me the answer should be $0$ by directly putting the value of $x$. But the answer given as $1$. How ?
I thought it might be instructive to present a way forward that relies only on elementary inequalities and the squeeze theorem. To that end, we now begin with a primer.
PRIMER:
In THIS ANSWER, I developed the inequalities introduced in elementary geometry
$$\theta\cos(\theta)\le \sin(\theta)\le \theta \tag 1$$
for $0\le \theta\le \pi/2$.
And in THIS ANSWER, I showed using only the limit definition of the exponential function and Bernoulli's Inequality that the logarithm function satisfies the inequalities
$$\frac{x-1}{x}\le \log(x)\le x-1 \tag 2$$
for $x>0$.
Applying $(1)$ and $(2)$ reveals
$$\frac{x^2\cos^2(x)}{1+\sin^2(x)}\le \log(1+\sin^2(x))\le \sin^2(x)\le x^2 \tag 3$$
and
$$\frac{\cos(\log^2(1+x))}{x^2}\le \cot(\log^2(1+x))\le \frac1{\log^2(1+x)}\le \frac{(1+x)^2}{x^2} \tag 4$$
Finally, using $(3)$ and $(4)$ together yields
$$ \frac{\cos^2(x)\,\cos(\log^2(1+x))}{1+\sin^2(x)}\le \log(1+\sin^2(x))\,\cot(\log^2(1+x))\le (1+x)^2$$
whence application of the squeeze theorem gives the coveted limit
$$\bbox[5px,border:2px solid #C0A000]{\lim_{x\to 0}\log(1+\sin^2(x))\,\cot(\log^2(1+x))=1}$$
as was to be shown!
HINT:
$$=\lim_{x\to0}\dfrac{\ln(1+\sin^2x)}{\sin^2x}\cdot\cos(\ln^2(1+x))\cdot\left(\dfrac{\sin x}x\right)^2\cdot\dfrac1{\dfrac{\sin(\ln^2(1+x))}{{\ln^2(1+x)}}}\dfrac1{\left(\dfrac{\ln(1+x)}x\right)^2}$$
Observe that $\ln(1+x) \approx_{0} x, \sin x \approx_{0} x \implies \ln(1+\sin^2x) \approx_{0} x^2, \cot(\ln^2(1+x)) \approx_{0} \cot(x^2)$, and using the fact that $\dfrac{x^2}{\sin^2 x} \to 1$ as $x \to 0$, we have the limit is $1$ indeed.
the answer should be 0 by directly putting the value of x
How so? – dxiv Dec 22 '16 at 04:10directly putting the value of x
you get an undefined $0 \cdot \infty$, so it's not obvious why you thought thatthe answer should be 0
. – dxiv Dec 22 '16 at 04:20