7

Is it true that a subfield $K$ of $C_t(s)$ (the quotient field of the ring of trigonometric polynomials with complex coefficients) containing a non-constant trigonometric polynomial satisfies that $K=\mathbb C(r)$ for some trigonometric polynomial $r$? (This is Lüroth's theorem for complex trigonometric polynomials.)

user26857
  • 52,094
  • What's the rationale behind the weird notation $C_t(s)$? What do $t$ and $s$ mean? Excellent question, though. – Georges Elencwajg Dec 21 '16 at 08:16
  • An interesting question. The real challenge is whether we can always choose $r$ to be an element of $\Bbb{C}[\cos z,\sin z]$. – Jyrki Lahtonen Dec 21 '16 at 09:21
  • Dear @Jyrki, you are right that your question (which I can't answer) is a real and interesting challenge. However my answer only tackled the question (mentioned in the OP's title and in his last sentence) of a Lüroth theorem for trigonometric polynomials. Lüroth's standard theorem never addresses the question whether a generator of a subfield is a polynomial. – Georges Elencwajg Dec 22 '16 at 17:55
  • Dear @Jyrki, I have now added an Edit to my post. – Georges Elencwajg Dec 23 '16 at 17:45

4 Answers4

3

The answer is: yes, it is true.

The field you are studying is $K:=\mathbb C(x,y)$ with $x,y$ transcendental over $\mathbb C$ satisfying $x^2+y^2=1$. In the analytic context we have $x=\cos \theta,y=\sin \theta$.
The well known parametrization $x=\frac{1-t^2}{1+t^2}, y=\frac{2t}{1+t^2}$ with $t=\frac{y}{1+x}$ shows that $K=\mathbb C(t)$, the rational function field in one indeterminate.
We can thus apply the usual Lüroth theorem stating that any subextension $\mathbb C\subset F\subset K$ is of the form $F=\mathbb C(\phi(t))=\mathbb C(\phi(\frac{y}{1+x}))=\mathbb C(\phi(\frac{\sin \theta}{1+\cos \theta}))$ for some rational function $\phi\in \mathbb C(t)$.
This shows that Lüroth's result also applies to complex trigonometric polynomials.

Edit
Consider the isomorphism invoked above $u:K=\mathbb C(x,y)\stackrel{\cong}{\to} \mathbb C(t):x\mapsto \frac{1-t^2}{1+t^2},y\mapsto \frac{2t}{1+t^2}$ and its restriction $u_\mathbb R:\mathbb R(x,y)\stackrel{\cong}{\to} \mathbb R(t).$
It is proved in the following paper by Cima, Gasull and Mañosas, Lemma 3 (reference friendly provided by @user26857) that the image of $\mathbb R[x,y]$ under $u_\mathbb R$ is the set of rational functions $\frac {f(t)}{(1+t^2)^n}$ with $n\geq 0$ and $f(t)\in \mathbb R[t]$ a polynomial of degree $\leq 2n$.
This allows one to prove that not every subfield of $\mathbb R(x,y)$ is of the form $\mathbb R(P(x,y))$ with $P(x,y)\in \mathbb R[x,y]$ a polynomial rather than an arbitrary rational function.
In fact even $\mathbb R(x,y)$ itself cannot be written in this form!
Indeed, let's transport the problem in terms of $t$:
The only generators over $\mathbb R$ of $\mathbb R(t)$ are fractions of the form $\frac {at+b}{ct+d}$ with $a,b,c,d\in \mathbb R, ad-bc\neq 0$ and it is clear that none of these fractions is of the form $\frac {f(t)}{(1+t^2)^n}$ .
Hence transporting back we see that we cannot write $\mathbb R(x,y)=\mathbb R(P(x,y))$

Although the analogue of the Proposition by Cima et al. is still valid over $\mathbb C$ (with the same proof) the result I just showed is no longer valid over $\mathbb C$ because $1+t^2$ not irreducible over $\mathbb C$.
Indeed $\mathbb C(x,y)$ is generated by the single polynomial $ x+iy$ over $\mathbb C$. Explicitly: $$\mathbb C(x,y)=\mathbb C(x+iy)=\mathbb C(\frac {1+it}{1-it})$$ and $\frac {1+it}{1-it}$ is of the required form $\frac {at+b}{ct+d}$ if you allow complex coefficients $a,b,c,d$.
However I don't know whether an arbitrary subextension $ \mathbb C\subset \mathbb C(x,y)$ can also be written as $\mathbb C(P(x,y))$ with $P(x,y)\in \mathbb C[x,y]$.

  • 1
    Maybe I'm missing something: but the more complicated point in the problem seems to be, that the subfield should be generated by a trigonometric polynomial. OK, sorry I just saw that Jyrki already mentions this point. – Hagen Knaf Dec 21 '16 at 10:27
  • In Georges Elencwajg's prove it is not clear at all that ϕ(t) is a complex trigonometric polynomial –  Dec 22 '16 at 08:56
  • @Claudia: I have written explicitly that $\phi \in \mathbb C(t)$ is a rational fraction. Lüroth's theorem does not mention polynomials at all. – Georges Elencwajg Dec 22 '16 at 17:48
  • Dear @Hagen, please see my answer to Jyrki. – Georges Elencwajg Dec 22 '16 at 17:57
  • Dear Georges. Yes I understand what you did ... actually I did the same just using the complex exponential instead of referring to the parametrization of the circle. But then I got doubts and thought that Claudia X really means something more: in fact she explicitely says that $K$ is required to be generated by a trigonometric polynomial. Which of course is stronger than the original Lüroth theorem. The question in this strong form can be asked for any suitable subring instead of the ring of trigonometric polynomials. I would really like to know an answer ... :) – Hagen Knaf Dec 22 '16 at 18:08
  • Dear @GeorgesElencwajg, I don't think you should feel embarrassed. On page 8 of this paper one can find a proof for real trigonometric polynomials which I think can be easily adapted to the complex case. The proof is not hard, but also not trivial. – user26857 Dec 22 '16 at 21:34
  • On the way is good to recall the result proved in this answer. – user26857 Dec 22 '16 at 21:49
  • On the other side, starting with $\mathbb C$ one can skip the proof for $\mathbb R$ since the ring of trigonometric polynomials is isomorphic to $\mathbb C[X,X^{−1}]$ which is nicer than $\mathbb R[X,Y]/(X^2+Y^2-1)$, and now the question looks trivial, but is it? (I suppose we arrive at something similar, but with powers of $X$ instead of $1+X^2$ as denominators, and this could make life easier.) – user26857 Dec 22 '16 at 21:57
  • 1
    Dear @user26857, thanks a lot for your very interesting (as always!) comments and for the article you link to, which I would never have come across without you. I had indeed tried to solve the problem by considering $\mathbb C[X,X^{-1}]$, a UFD with trivial class group, and my frustration came from my being unable to handle such a simple situation... – Georges Elencwajg Dec 22 '16 at 23:12
  • Dear @GeorgesElencwajg, maybe one can't solve this problem by using sophisticated machinery. As the paper shows us, a direct approach seems to be more successful. – user26857 Dec 22 '16 at 23:21
  • I have now added an Edit solving the problem evoked in the comments over $\mathbb R$, but not over $\mathbb C$. – Georges Elencwajg Dec 23 '16 at 17:58
1

An attempt to prove that the answer to Claudia X's question is Yes - but with a gap:

Under the link

https://commons.wikimedia.org/wiki/File:Another_elementary_proof_of_Luroth%27s_theorem-06.2004.pdf

one can find a proof for Lüroth's theorem, that tells us something about the generator of the intermediate field (I didn't check the proof!). So let $M$ be subfield of the rational function field $k(X)$, $M\neq k$, $M\neq k(X)$. Let $p$ be the minimal polynomial of $X$ over $M$. Then in the article mentioned above it is shown that $M$ is generated by any of the coefficients of $p$, that does not lie in $k$.

In our situation $k=\mathbb{C}$. Moreover the ring of trigonometric functions with complex coefficients equals $\mathbb{C}[x,y]$, where $x^2+y^2=1$ as Georges has already explained. The algebraic curve over $\mathbb{C}$ given by this equation has no singularities, therefore the ring $\mathbb{C}[x,y]$ is integrally closed.

Due to the equation $(x+iy)(x-iy)=1$, the fraction field $\mathbb{C}(x,y)$ can be generated by the trigonometric polynomial $x+iy$.

Now let $M\neq\mathbb{C}$ be a proper subfield of $\mathbb{C}(x,y)$, then $\mathbb{C}(x,y)|M$ is a finite extension and the ring $R:=M\cap\mathbb{C}[x,y]$ is integrally closed in $M$.

If we would know that $\mathbb{C}[x,y]$ is integral over $R$, then we are done: the generator $x+iy$ is integral over $R$, hence every coefficient lies in $R$, which proves the assertion.

Hagen Knaf
  • 8,932
  • Are you refering to Theorem 6 in the paper you mention? Then there is one case, in which the problem is still open: in that case the subfield is generated by a tangens function. After all looking at my attempt I (also) feel like the question of Claudia X does not always have a positive answer. – Hagen Knaf Dec 22 '16 at 23:08
  • Dear Hagen, I now see, after having posted my Edit, that you had proved that $\mathbb C(x,y)$ is generated by $x+iy$ before me and in a more elementary way! And +1. – Georges Elencwajg Dec 23 '16 at 18:35
1

Strictly speaking the answer to the question is no, since $K$ has countable subfields: $\mathbf Q(\sin z)$.

KCd
  • 46,062
0

The answer to Claudia X's question is Yes.

Let $K$ be an algebraically closed field of characteristic $\neq 2$. Consider the function field $F=K(x,y)$ with $x^2+y^2=1$ and the ring $T:=K[x,y]$. Let $z:=x+iy$, $i^2=-1$. Then $F=K(z)$ and $T=K[z,z^{-1}]$; in particular every $t\in T$ has the form $\frac{f}{z^m}$ for some $f\in K[z]$ not divisible by $z$.

Claim 1: A subfield $E\neq K$ of $F$ is generated by an element $t\in T\setminus K$ if and only if it is generated by an element of the form

$\frac{af+bz^m}{cf+dz^m},\; f\in K[z],\; a,b,c,d\in K, ad-bc\neq 0$.

Proof: $\Rightarrow$: let $E=K(t)$, $t=\frac{f}{z^m}$, $f\in K[z]$ not divisible by $z$. Every generator of $E$ then has the form

$ \frac{at+b}{ct+d}=\frac{a\frac{f}{z^m}+b}{c\frac{f}{z^m}+d}=\frac{af+bz^m}{cf+dz^m} $

with $a,b,c,d\in K$, $ad-bc\neq 0$.

$\Leftarrow$: let $ g:=\frac{af+bz^m}{cf+dz^m} $ be a generator of $E$. Then $ \frac{1}{ad-bc}\frac{dg-b}{-cg+a}=\frac{f}{z^m}\in T $ is a generator of $E$.

Claim 2: A subfield $E\neq K$ of $F$ is generated by an element $t\in T\setminus K$ if and only if $T\cap E\neq K$.

Proof: let $t=\frac{f}{z^m}\in E\setminus K$, $f\in K[z]$ not divisible by $z$. Let $E=K(\frac{p}{q})$ with coprime polynomials $p,q\in K[z]$. Then there exist coprime polynomials $G,H\in K[X]$ such that

$ \frac{f}{z^m}=\frac{G(\frac{p}{q})}{H(\frac{p}{q})}. $

Since both polynomials $G$ and $H$ split into linear factors $X-\gamma$, $\gamma\in K$, and since $ \frac{p}{q}-\gamma=\frac{p-\gamma q}{q} $ one gets

$ \frac{f}{z^m}=q^n \frac{\prod\limits_{i=1}^r(p-\alpha_i q)^{e_i}}{\prod\limits_{j=1}^s(p-\beta_j q)^{f_j}},\; n\in\mathbb{Z},\quad (1) $

where the elements $\alpha_i$ and $\beta_j$ are pairwise distinct.

The following properties are present:

  • By assumption about $p$ and $q$, the polynomials $p-\alpha_i q$ und $p-\beta_j q$ possess no zero in common with $q$.
  • Two polynomials $p-\alpha q$ und $p-\beta q$ with $\alpha\neq\beta$ possess no common zero.

Due to these properties in equation (1) no linear factors can cancel out. Since the denominator of the left-hand-side has $z$ as its only linear factor, only the following cases are possible:

Case 1: $m=0$.

Case 2: $s=1$.

Case 3: $H$ is constant.

In the first case the polynomial $H$ must be constant, thus one actually is in the third case.

In the second case case $p-\beta_1 q=z^\ell$ and therefore $ \frac{p}{q}=\frac{\beta_1 q +z^\ell}{q}. $ The first claim then yields that $\frac{q}{z^\ell}\in T$ is a generator of $E$.

In the third case $n<0$ hence $q=z^\ell$ must hold, which gives $\frac{p}{q}\in T$.

Hagen Knaf
  • 8,932
  • I haven't checked your proof, but how I implied few days ago the subfield generated by tangents don't show up in the complex case since $1+x^2$ is reducible over $\mathbb C$. – user26857 Dec 29 '16 at 09:40