Let $X=\left\{(x,1/x) : x\in(0,\infty) \right\}$ be a metric space with $$d((x,1/x),(y,1/y)) = \sqrt{(x-y)^2+(1/x-1/y)^2}.$$
Prove whether or not the space is complete.
I can't find a counter-example, and also my intuition is that it is indeed complete. But I might be wrong... I tried showing that it cannot be true that for every element in $X$ there exists an $\epsilon'>0$ such that for all $k\in\mathbb N$ $$\sqrt{(x_k-a)^2+(1/x_n-1/a)^2}>\epsilon'.$$ I also tried using triangular inequality to set an upper bound for the distance, but this approach is probably too cumbersome, and I can't find the right path...