If my memory serves I have heard something like "the less smooth your function $f$ is, the worse its Fourier transform $\hat{f}$ decay because its Fourier transform $\hat{f}$ needs more waves of high frequency". I now would like to formulate the claim above properly.
I am interested in relation of smoothness and decay property of Fourier transformation. I think this can be rigorously shown by the fundamental properties of Fourier transformation:
$\widehat{\partial_{x}^n f}(\xi)=(i\xi)^n\hat{f}(\xi)$ and $\widehat{(i\xi)^n f}(\xi)=\partial_{x}^n\hat{f}(\xi)$
From these equalities how can one conclude smoothness and decay property of Fourier transformation?