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This is a question from A Book Of Abstract Algebra. I found this question which gives the same hint the book gives. Here are the hints given by the book:

  1. $ord(a) = ord(bab^{-1})$

  2. if $a = bab^{-1}$, then $ab = ba$ (i.e. $a$ and $b$ commute).

I still don't understand how to solve this. $ord(a) = ord(bab^{-1})$ doesn't mean $a = bab^{-1}$, right?

2 Answers2

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If $\operatorname{ord}(a) = \operatorname{ord}(bab^{-1})$, then since $a$ is the only element which has the same order as $a$ (unique by its order), then $bab^{-1}$ must equal $a$.

Tom
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Hint If $ord(a)=k$ then $ord(bab^{-1})=k$. Since $a$ is the only element of order $k$ in the group, it means that any element of order $k$ must be equal to $a$.

N. S.
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