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Is it true that

If $f\in C^1(\mathbb{R})$ and $\lim_{x\to\infty}f(x)=0$, then $\lim_{x\to\infty} f'(x)=0$.

Thomas Andrews
  • 177,126

1 Answers1

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Nope. Take $f(x) = \frac{\sin(x^2)}{x}$.

(edit: and define $f(0) = 0$)