It is depends on your definition of convergence of the product. It is not uncommon to say that this product diverges to zero. This is because the sum $\sum_{n=1}^\infty \log\left(\frac{1}{1+n^2}\right)$ is divergent.
– SashaOct 01 '12 at 04:08
I was confused about this fact: The product of positive real numbers$ a_n<1 $,
$ \prod_{n=1}^{\infty} a_n$
converges if and only if the sum
$\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \log a_n$
converges. So how this doesn't contradicts MJD answer below? (btw, by converge I mean finite)
– math st.Oct 01 '12 at 04:16
1 Answers1
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Your hint is: It's the product of a lot of numbers each of which is between 0 and 1.