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While watching interesting mathematics videos, I found one of the papers of Srinivasa Ramanujan to G.H.Hardy in which he had written $1^3+2^3+3^3+4^3+\cdots=\frac{1}{120}$.

The problem is that every term on the left is more than $\frac{1}{120}$ yet the sum is $\frac{1}{120}$. How is that ???

I know that there are many and much more interesting things presented by Ramanujan (like $1-1+1-1+1...=\frac{1}{2}$ and $1+2+3+4.....=\frac{-1}{12}$) but for now I am interested in the summation in the title. Any idea/hint is heartily welcome. Thanks.

Here is the video I'm talking about.

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    The $\frac{-1}{12}$ summation has many more questions here and all the answers are relevant to this question. For example: https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/633285/is-the-sum-of-all-natural-numbers-frac112 – Hugh Dec 10 '16 at 07:59
  • Definition of infinite sums vary – Zelos Malum Dec 10 '16 at 08:04
  • @Hugh, I know that there are many more questions already asked on -1/12. But I don't see any answer there which can give the answer of the question I have asked. – Vidyanshu Mishra Dec 10 '16 at 08:04
  • @ZelosMalum, How and to what extent?? – Vidyanshu Mishra Dec 10 '16 at 08:05
  • @THELONEWOLF. By changing metrics and much else and to what extent? Infinitely much :) Might wanna look up p-adic numbers. – Zelos Malum Dec 10 '16 at 08:06
  • Should this perhaps be also tagged ([tag:ramanujan-sumation])? I am not familiar with this method myself, but the tag-info and Wikipedia article provide some basic information. – Martin Sleziak Dec 10 '16 at 08:11
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    This result is also mentioned in this answer. And perhaps you can find some other posts about evaluating $\zeta(-3)$. – Martin Sleziak Dec 10 '16 at 08:36
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    +1 for referring to a decent piece of exposition rather than the infamous-youtube-video-that-shall-not-be-named. (Although, even if I did not re-watch Mathologer's piece, I would think the answer to your question is explained there.) – Did Dec 10 '16 at 08:46
  • @did the video was on the summation -1/12. After watching half of it I thought now I should move to MSE – Vidyanshu Mishra Dec 10 '16 at 08:50
  • http://karagila.org/2016/syntactic-t-rex-irregularized/ – Asaf Karagila Dec 10 '16 at 09:20
  • You wrote one of the sums wrong. It should be $$1-1+1-1+\dots=\frac12$$ – Simply Beautiful Art Dec 10 '16 at 12:53
  • Yes, @SimpleArt,Thanks for pointing it. I have edited it – Vidyanshu Mishra Dec 10 '16 at 12:59
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    @AsafKaragila: I'm afraid I would disagree with your editing on the title. The question in the body shows that OP does not know what a Ramanujan Summation is. If one uses the title as what it is now, then the title does not match the spirit of the body. –  Dec 10 '16 at 16:18
  • @Jack: I know that there is such a thing as a Ramanujan sum, and if someone would have told me that $1^3+2^3+3^3+\ldots=\frac1{120}$, I would imagine that the result can be derived like that. But I don't know how is the Ramanujan summation is defined, its machinations or how to derive this equality. I don't see how using a term in the title makes the question any different. – Asaf Karagila Dec 10 '16 at 16:21
  • @AsafKaragila It is a specific method to evaluating such sums. Perhaps we should change the title to something more along the lines "How does one sum ...?" The references in the body of the question should be fine enough. – Simply Beautiful Art Dec 10 '16 at 16:27
  • @AsafKaragila: As I said in the previous comment, "The question in the body shows that OP does not know what a Ramanujan Summation is." And I think that is the reason why he/she asks "The problem is that every term on the left is more than $\frac{1}{120}$ yet the sum is $\frac{1}{120}$. How is that ???" If OP knows such a concept, then he/she would not put the question in the body of the post in that way, would he/she? –  Dec 10 '16 at 16:30

5 Answers5

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I think I have rediscovered it (after watching the video you linked and read wiki biography of Ramanujan).

Start with $$ \frac{1}{x+1} =1 -x +x^2 -x^3 +-\cdots, \quad |x| <1. $$ and differentiate to get $$ -\frac{1}{(x+1)^2} =-1 +2x -3x^2 +4x^3 -+\cdots, \quad |x| <1. \\ \frac{2}{(x+1)^3} =2 \cdot 1 -3 \cdot 2x +4 \cdot 3 x^2 -+\cdots, \quad |x| <1. \\ -\frac{6}{(x+1)^4} =-3 \cdot 2 \cdot 1 +4 \cdot 3 \cdot 2x -5 \cdot 4 \cdot 3 x^2 +-\cdots, \quad |x| <1. $$

Take a magic mushroom and, ignoring $|x| <1$, let us take $x=1$ in each one. $$ \frac{1}{2} =1 -1 +1 -1 +- \cdots \\ -\frac{1}{4} =-1 +2 -3 +4 -+ \cdots \\ \frac{1}{4} =2 \cdot 1 -3 \cdot 2 +4 \cdot 3 -+ \cdots \\ -\frac{3}{8} =-3 \cdot 2 \cdot 1 +4 \cdot 3 \cdot 2 -5 \cdot 4 \cdot 3 +- \cdots $$ Or more formally, $$ \sum_{m=1}^\infty (-1)^{m+1} m =\frac{1}{4}. \\ \sum_{m=1}^\infty (-1)^{m+1} m (m+1) =\frac{1}{4}. \\ \sum_{m=1}^\infty (-1)^{m+1} m (m+1) (m+2) =\frac{3}{8}. $$

But notice $$ \begin{align} \sum_{m=1}^\infty (-1)^{m+1} m^2 =&\sum_{m=1}^\infty (-1)^{m+1} m (m+1) -\sum_{m=1}^\infty (-1)^{m+1} m \\ =&\frac{1}{4} -\frac{1}{4} =0. \end{align} $$ and $$ \begin{align} \sum_{m=1}^\infty (-1)^{m+1} m^3 =&\sum_{m=1}^\infty (-1)^{m+1} m (m+1) (m+2) -3\sum_{m=1}^\infty (-1)^{m+1} m^2 -2\sum_{m=1}^\infty (-1)^{m+1} m \\ =&\frac{3}{8} -3 \cdot 0 -2 \cdot \frac{1}{4} =-\frac{1}{8} \quad \quad \ldots \spadesuit \end{align} $$

On the other hand, $$ \zeta(-3) :=1^3 +2^3 +3^3 +\cdots \\ 2^4 \zeta(-3) =2 \cdot 2^3 +2 \cdot 4^3 +2 \cdot 6^3 +\cdots \\ $$ Subtract them, aligning the 2nd, 4th, 6th term like Ramanjunan did in his notebooks (shown in the video). $$ -15 \zeta(-3) =1^3 -2^3 +3^3 -+\cdots \quad \quad \ldots \heartsuit $$ $\heartsuit$ and $\spadesuit$ together give us: (Hold your breath.) $$ \sum_{m=1}^\infty m^3 =\frac{1}{120}. $$

Recently I also found a proof of Riemann conjecture, but the answer box is too narrow for me to type all that down.

P.s. seriously, I think Ramanujan's effort is sort of finding an interpretation of divergent series so that they have a real value, while their manipulation to be still consistent to our usual notion of arithmetics: arranging, addition, expanding, etc.? Maybe this can be compared to the attempt to define quaternion as an extension of complex numbers, while inevitably discarding commutative law?

Violapterin
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  • I'm absolutely fascinated that this came as a result of ignoring $|x|<1$ to allow $x=1$. How much of the work can be made valid by taking the limit as $x$ tends to $1$? – Hugh Dec 10 '16 at 11:31
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    @Hugh If we rewrite it as $x\to1$, then we are regularizing the sum. But any way you look at it, you are regularizing the result if you don't get $\infty$ as the answer. – Simply Beautiful Art Dec 10 '16 at 12:48
  • And see this post about the invariance properties of those summation methods. cc @SimpleArt – reuns Dec 10 '16 at 13:27
  • I love the magic mushroom part. – MasB Dec 10 '16 at 14:02
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Let $f(x)=x^d$ for $d\geq 1$ then by Euler–Maclaurin summation formula $$\sum_{k=1}^nf(x)=C+\int_0^n f(x) dx+\frac{f(n)}{2}+\sum_{k\geq 1}\frac{B_{2k}}{(2k)!}f^{(2k-1)}(n)$$ where $B_n$ denotes the $n$-th Bernoulli number.

In his theory of Divergent Series, Ramanujan "identified" $\sum_{k=1}^{\infty}f(x)$ with $C$. Note that $C$ is zero if $d$ is even and it is $-\frac{B_{d+1}}{d+1}$ if $d$ is odd. So for $d=1$ we get $-\frac{1}{12}$ and for $d=3$ we obtain $\frac{1}{120}$.

Robert Z
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    So: don't call $1/120$ the "sum"... instead call it the "Euler-Maclarin remainder". Then beginners (like Mr WOLF) will not be confused by it. – GEdgar Dec 10 '16 at 13:33
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Below is the derivation of the following equality:

$$\zeta(-s)=\frac1{1-2^{1+s}}\lim_{r\to1^-}\left(\underbrace{r\cdot\frac d{dr}r\cdot\frac d{dr}\dots r\cdot\frac d{dr}}_s\frac{-1}{1+r}\right)$$


Notice that if we have

$$\zeta(s)=1+\frac1{2^s}+\frac1{3^s}+\frac1{4^s}+\dots$$

$$\eta(s)=1-\frac1{2^s}+\frac1{3^s}-\frac1{4^s}+\dots$$

then, when they are absolutely convergent, we get the functional equation:

$$\begin{align}\zeta(s)&=1+\frac1{2^s}+\frac1{3^s}+\frac1{4^s}+\dots\\\eta(s)&=1-\frac1{2^s}+\frac1{3^s}-\frac1{4^s}+\dots\\\hline\zeta(s)-\eta(s)&=2\left(\ \ \frac1{2^s}\qquad\ \ +\frac1{4^s}+\dots\right)\\&=2^{1-s}\left(1+\frac1{2^s}+\frac1{3^s}+\frac1{4^s}+\dots\right)\tag{factored out $2^s$}\\&=2^{1-s}\zeta(s)\end{align}$$

Solving for $\zeta(s)$, we get

$$\zeta(s)=\frac1{1-2^{1-s}}\eta(s)$$

And since these are analytic functions, this holds for all $s$.

As a somewhat elementary method, we can evaluate the $\eta(s)$ as follows, which converges for all $s$.

$$\eta(s)=\lim_{r\to1^-}\sum_{n=1}^\infty\frac{(-1)^{n+1}r^n}{n^s}$$

And thus, we have ourselves left with

$$\eta(-3)=\lim_{r\to1^-}\sum_{n=1}^\infty(-1)^{n+1}r^nn^3=-\frac18$$

which may be done by manipulating the geometric series:

$$\frac{-1}{1+r}=\sum_{n=0}^\infty(-1)^{n+1}r^n$$

$$r\cdot\frac d{dr}\frac{-1}{1+r}=\sum_{n=0}^\infty(-1)^{n+1}nr^n\\\vdots$$

$$\underbrace{r\cdot\frac d{dr}r\cdot\frac d{dr}\dots r\cdot\frac d{dr}}_k\frac{-1}{1+r}=\sum_{n=0}^\infty(-1)^{n+1}n^kr^n$$

Which then yields the desired result $\zeta(-3)=\frac1{120}$.

So, succinctly, we end up with the following form for the zeta function whenever $s\in\mathbb N,\ s>0$:

$$\zeta(-s)=\frac1{1-2^{1+s}}\lim_{r\to1^-}\left(\underbrace{r\cdot\frac d{dr}r\cdot\frac d{dr}\dots r\cdot\frac d{dr}}_s\frac{-1}{1+r}\right)$$

which isn't terribly difficult to work out. Just a lot of quotient rule going on in there. If $s=0$, we have

$$\zeta(0)=\frac1{1-2^{1+0}}\lim_{r\to1^-}\left(\frac1{1+r}\right)=-\frac12$$


Some values worked out for you:

$$\zeta(-1)=\frac1{1-2^{1+1}}\lim_{r\to1^-}\left(r\cdot\frac d{dr}\frac{-1}{1+r}\right)=-\frac13\lim_{r\to1^-}\left(\frac{r}{(1+r)^2}\right)=-\frac1{12}$$

$$\zeta(-2)=\frac1{1-2^{1+2}}\lim_{r\to1^-}\left(r\cdot\frac d{dr}r\cdot\frac d{dr}\frac{-1}{1+r}\right)=-\frac17\lim_{r\to1^-}\left(r\cdot\frac d{dr}\frac{r}{(1+r)^2}\right)\\=-\frac17\lim_{r\to1^-}\left(\frac{r-r^2}{(1+r)^3}\right)=0$$

$$\zeta(-3)=\frac1{1-2^{1+3}}\lim_{r\to1^-}\left(r\cdot\frac d{dr}r\cdot\frac d{dr}r\cdot\frac d{dr}\frac{-1}{1+r}\right)=-\frac1{15}\lim_{r\to1^-}\left(r\cdot\frac d{dr}\frac{r-r^2}{(1+r)^3}\right)\\=-\frac1{15}\left(\frac{r-4r^2+r^3}{(1+r)^4}\right)=\frac1{120}$$

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The problem is that every term on the left is more than $\frac{1}{120}$ yet the sum is $\frac{1}{120}$. How is that ???

To answer the question directly: Ramanujan summation is a technique invented by the mathematician Srinivasa Ramanujan for assigning a value to divergent infinite series. It is well explained in the linked Wikipedia article.

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When you define a series like $1^3+2^3+3^3+4^3+...+n^3$ you have a specific definition in mind for How to compute this series and How to take the limit as $n$ tends to infinity.

Ramanujan is using a different definition for what it means to compute this series. That definition allows for properties like the sum of numbers being equal to a value smaller than every term.

Hugh
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