Is the following implication true?
Let $f:\mathbb{R} \to \mathbb{R}$ be a continous function, differentiable in all $\mathbb{R}$, besides at most one point $x_0$.
$$f^{(n)}(x) \,\,\mathrm{is \,\,\, continous \,\,\, in \,\,\,} x_0 \implies f \,\,\,\mathrm{is \,\,\, differentiable \,\,\, in }\,\,\, x_0 \,\,\, \mathrm{and} \,\,\, f^{n}(x_0)=\lim_{x \to x_0}f^{n}(x)$$
Where $f^{(n)}$ denotes the n-th derivative of $f$.
I know that such theorem is valid for the first derivative $f'$, but is it valid (as stated) in the case of the n-th derivative?