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I want to show that for any convergent series $\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}a_n$ with $a_n>0$ there exists a sequence $(b_n)$, $\lim\limits_{n \to \infty} b_n = \infty$, such that $\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}a_nb_n$ converges. Any hints?

zhw.
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Zelazny
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2 Answers2

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Hint: Define a sequence $(n_k)$ such that for each $k$, $$ \sum_{n=n_k}^\infty a_n < \frac{1}{4^k} $$ use these $n_k$ to define a sequence $(b_n)$ in which for all $k$, $$ b_{n_k} = b_{n_k+1} = \cdots = b_{n_{k+1}- 1} $$

Ben Grossmann
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  • When you say $b_{n_{k+1}- 1}$, do you really mean $b_{n_{k+1}}- 1$? – TonyK Dec 05 '16 at 22:33
  • @TonyK I do not, though I suppose the idea that gets at also works – Ben Grossmann Dec 05 '16 at 22:33
  • Then your answer is rather gnomic. You should perhaps make explicit that $(b_n)$ tends to infinity. (I know this is part of the question, but it's not part of your answer.) – TonyK Dec 05 '16 at 22:38
  • @TonyK gnomic is a cool word, thanks for that. I appreciate your objection, but I feel that since the OP is looking for a hint on how to approach the problem, this is an appropriate answer. – Ben Grossmann Dec 05 '16 at 22:44
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Hint: There are positive integers $n_1<n_2 < \cdots$ such that

$$\sum_{n=n_k}^{n_{k+1}-1} a_n < \frac{1}{2^k}.$$

zhw.
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