If f and g are entire and $\left|f(z)\right| \leq \left|g(z)\right| $ in $\mathbb{C}$ then $\exists \alpha\in \mathbb{C}$ such that $f(z)=\alpha g(z)$ $ \forall z \in \mathbb{C}$ with $\left|\alpha\right| \leq 1$
Is it possible to use without residues and so? I haven't learned neither Laurent series nor residues. This question is from a final exam so I don't know if im supposed to be able to prove it right now or i have to wait to learn those other tools before i can prove it. Any tips are appreciated.