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Given a bitstring $w \in \{0,1\}^*$, is there always a extension $x\in\{0,1\}^*$, such that the number binary represented by wx is a prime number? I.e. \begin{align*} \exists x : \Sigma_{i=|x|+1}^{|w|+|x|} 2^i \cdot w_i + \Sigma_{i=0}^{|x|} 2^i\cdot x_i \text{ is a prime} \end{align*}

Stated otherwise, can we turn every natural number into a prime by sequences of doubling and doubling+1?

The problem may also be generalized to an arbitrary base instead of 2.

  • This is already answered at http://math.stackexchange.com/questions/60825/proof-that-there-are-infinitely-many-prime-numbers-starting-with-a-given-digit-s. In fact the same argument, coupled with PNT for APs, shows that you can specify both the prefix and the suffix and get infinitely many primes (provided the suffix doesn't end in $0$). – Erick Wong Nov 21 '16 at 04:16

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This is no definite answer, but may be one in a few years.

I'm lazy and define $n10110$ as appending $10110$ to the binary representation of n.

The ratio of max and min number we can get is $\frac{n1111111...}{n0000000...} = \frac{2^{k}n+2^{k}-1}{2^{k}n}$ (appending k 1s and 0s).

The Oppermann conjecture states: "For every integer $x > 1$, there is at least one prime number between $x(x − 1)$ and $x^{2}$ and at least another prime between $x^{2}$ and $x(x + 1)$."

That means the ratio of two primes is at most $\frac {x(x+1)-1}{x^{2}+1}$, as $x^{2}$ and $x(x+1)$ aren't prime themselves.

$$\frac{2^{k}n+2^{k}-1}{2^{k}n} > \frac {n(n+1)-1}{n^{2}+1}$$ $$\iff (2^{k}n+2^{k}-1)(n^{2}+1) > (n(n+1)-1)(2^{k}n) $$ $$\iff 2^{k}n^{3}+2^{k}n^{2}-n^{2}+2^{k}n+2^{k}-1 > 2^{k}n^{3}+2^{k}n^{2}-2^{k}n $$ $$\iff 2^{k}-1 > n^{2} $$

So if given an $n$ we just chose $k$ so that $2^{k}-1 > n^{2} $ and we're guaranteed that there is a prime in range $n0000000...$ to $n1111111...$ as the span we cover with those two numbers is bigger than the span in which at least one prime is guaranteed to appear.

The only issue is, that the Oppermann conjecture is NOT proven yet, however it is very likely that it is true, so I'd answer your question with a '99.999% yes' as well.

PattuX
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  • Oppermann's conjecture is open but other results are available that allow this same argument to go through. For instance it's known that for $n$ sufficiently large there is a prime between $n^3$ and $(n+1)^3$. This follows from bounds on large gaps between primes, the current record holder being Baker-Harman-Pintz, I believe. But in fact we only need PNT which is much weaker. – Erick Wong Nov 21 '16 at 18:51