I would like to ask if the question above is true or not and if true, how it can be proved?
Is there a real-valued function f different from exp($a^x$) for which f'(x) = a*f(x) for all real x?
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Assume $f: \mathbb{R} \to \mathbb{R}$ is differentiable with $f'(x) = a f(x)$. Consider the function $g(x) = f(x) e^{-ax}$. Then $g$ is differentiable with derivative $$g'(x) = f'(x) e^{-ax} + f(x) (-ae^{-ax}) = e^{-ax}(af(x) - af(x)) = 0.$$
But this means that $g$ is a constant function, i.e. $f(x) = C e^{ax}$.

Dominik
- 19,963
DSolve[f'[x] == a f[x], f[x], x]
gives onlyE^(a x) C[1]
as a solution, i.e. a family of exponentials. – corey979 Nov 18 '16 at 12:15