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Let $X,Y$ be length spaces. A map $f:X \to Y$ is called an arcwise isometry if $L(f(\gamma))=L(\gamma)$ for every path $\gamma$.

In the book "A course in metric geometry" (Burago & Burago & Ivanov) it is claimed that an arcwise isometry that is a local homeomorphism is a local isometry.

A map $f : X \to Y$ is called a local isometry at $x ∈ X$ if $x$ has a neighborhood $U$ such that the restriction $\left.f\right|_U$ maps $U$ isometrically onto an open set $V$ in $Y$. In other words the map $\left.f\right|_U:(U,\left.d^X\right|_U) \to (V,\left.d^Y\right|_V)$ is an isometry. (Note that we are using the restrictions of the metrics on $X,Y$, not the induced intrinsic distances which only allow for paths that stay inside $U,V$).

A map which is a local isometry at every point is called a local isometry.


I do not see why this is needs to be true. I think there is a problem if points in $Y$ don't have convex neighbourhoods.

Indeed, let $p \in X$. There exists open sets $p \in U \subseteq X,f(p) \in V \subseteq Y$ such that $f:U \to V$ is a homeomorphism. Since $f$ is an arcwise isometry, it is $1$-Lipschitz, so

$$ (1)\, \, d^Y(f(p),f(q)) \le d^X(p,q)$$

Even if we knew $f^{-1}:V \to U$ also preserves lengths the only thing we could conclude is that

$$ (2)\, \, d^X(p,q) \le d^U(p,q) \le d^V(f(p),f(q))$$

(where $d^U,d^V$ are the intrinsic metrics induced on $U$,$V$)

However, if $V$ is not convex then it's possible that $ d^V(f(p),f(q)) > d^Y(f(p),f(q))$ so we don't have a way to combine inequalities $(1)$ and $(2)$.

So, is the assertion true? Or do we indeed need some local-convexity assumptions on $Y$?


Asaf Shachar
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    You do not need existence of a convex neighborhood for this proof. All what you need is that $\forall x\in X, \epsilon>0$ and a neighborhourhood $U$ of $x$, $\exists$ $r>0$ such that $B(x,r)\subset U$ and for all $x_1, x_2\in B(x,r)$ every $\epsilon$-minimizing path between $x_1, x_2$ in $X$ is contained in $U$. – Moishe Kohan Nov 18 '16 at 03:41
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    @MoisheCohen Thanks. I was able to prove your statement. I then tried to write a proof based on it, but I got confused, and then I noticed there is in fact a much simpler proof: locally we have a bijection which is an arcwise isometry, hence an isometry itself (you can see details below). Do you think this is correct? – Asaf Shachar Nov 20 '16 at 21:13
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    No, your proof is incomplete as written. The thing you are missing us the content of my remark above. If would help if you were to start spelling out the definition of a local isometry. – Moishe Kohan Nov 20 '16 at 21:41
  • @MoisheCohen I have edited the question to include the definition of local isometry. I have also simplified my solution. – Asaf Shachar Nov 20 '16 at 22:01
  • Good. Now find the gap in your argument. – Moishe Kohan Nov 20 '16 at 22:07
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    Of course... I proved that the map was a "local isometry" when considering the intrinsic distances. I think I got it right this time... (but it's too late in the night so I am not sure:). Thanks for your help. – Asaf Shachar Nov 20 '16 at 23:16

1 Answers1

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I am trying to write an answer based on the comment of Moishe Cohen.

We start with an observation:

Let $X,Y$ be metric spaces. For any homeomorphism $f:X \to Y$ which is also an arcwise isometry, $\, f^{-1}:Y \to X$ is an arcwise isometry.

Proof:

Let $\alpha$ be a path in $Y$. Then $f^{-1}(\alpha)$ is a path in $X$, and by the definition of arcwise isometry $L_Y(\alpha)=L_Y\big( f (f^{-1}(\alpha))\big)=L_X\big( f^{-1}(\alpha) \big)$.


Lemma: (A proof is at the end of the question)

Let $(X,d)$ be a length space. Let $x\in X,U$ an open neighbourhood of $x$ in $X$. Then, for every $\epsilon>0$ sufficiently small there exists an $r >0$ such that $ B(x,r) \subseteq U$ and forall $x_1,x_2 \in B(x,r)$ every $\epsilon$-minimizing path between $x_1,x_2$ in $X$ is contained in $U$.

In particular $d^U(x_1,x_2)=d^X(x_1,x_2) $.


A proof of the main proposition, using the above lemma:

First, as noted in the question, we already know that $$ (1)\, \, d^Y(f(q),f(q')) \le d^X(q,q')$$

Let $p \in X$. There exists open sets $p \in U \subseteq X,f(p) \in V \subseteq Y$ such that $\left.f\right|_U:U \to V$ is a homeomorphism.

Let $\epsilon > 0$. By the lemme there exist $B(f(p),r) \subseteq V$, such that for every $q,q' \in (\left.f\right|_U)^{-1}\big(B(f(p),r)\big) \subseteq U$

$$ (2)\, \, d^V(f(q),f(q')) = d^Y(f(q),f(q')) $$

The assumption that $f:X \to Y$ is an arcwise isometry, implies that $\left.f\right|_U:U \to V$ is an arcwise isometry.

So, by the observation we made at the beginning, $(\left.f\right|_U)^{-1}:V \to U$ is an arcwise isometry, hence $1$-Lipschitz w.r.t the intrinsic distances on $V,U$ (which we denote by $d^V,d^U$).

Thus, if $q,q' \in (\left.f\right|_U)^{-1}\big(B(f(p),r)\big) \subseteq U$ then

$$ (3)\, \, d^X(q,q') \le d^U(q,q') = d^U\bigg((\left.f\right|_U)^{-1}\big(f(q)\big),(\left.f\right|_U)^{-1}\big(f(q)\big)\bigg) \le d^V(f(q),f(q'))$$

Now combine $(2),(3)$ to obtain

$$ (4)\, \, d^X(q,q') \le d^Y(f(q),f(q')) $$

So, $(1),(4)$ together imply that $f: (\left.f\right|_U)^{-1}\big(B(f(p),r)\big) \to B(f(p),r)$ is an isometry.


A proof of the lemma:

Let $\epsilon >0$ be small enough such that $B(x,4\epsilon) \subseteq U$. Let $p,q \in B(x,\epsilon)$. Then $d(p,q) < 2\epsilon$. Let $\alpha$ be an-$\epsilon$ minimizing path between $p,q$, i.e:

$$ L(\alpha) < d(p,q) + \epsilon < 3\epsilon$$

Then,

$$ d(x,\alpha(t)) < d(x,p)+d(p,\alpha(t)) < \epsilon + L(\alpha) < 4\epsilon$$

so $\alpha(t) \in B(x,4\epsilon) \subseteq U$.

Asaf Shachar
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    Viz (1), there is a problem: $f^{-1}(\alpha)$ need not be a priori a path. Of course, if $f$ is a local homeomorphism, it is. – tomasz Nov 20 '16 at 21:15
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    There is another problem: why is $f$ an isometry in the conclusion of the first observation? I don't think that's completely obvious. – tomasz Nov 20 '16 at 21:21
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    You are right about your first comment. By a path I mean a conitnuous map $I \to {X}$ and indeed I am using the fact $f$ is a local homeomorphism. Thanks for pointing this out. Regarding your second comment, $f$ is an isometry because we have a bijection between the set of all paths from $p$ to $q$ in $X$, and the paths from $f(p)$ to $f(q)$ in $X$, and this bijection is length preserving. – Asaf Shachar Nov 20 '16 at 21:30
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    But you need it to be distance-preserving, not path length preserving. If $Y$ was not a length space, I don't see how that would follow. – tomasz Nov 20 '16 at 22:18
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    You are right. I do assume $Y$ is a length space. However, my proof is flawed. I actually proved "local isometry" between the intrinsic distances. – Asaf Shachar Nov 20 '16 at 22:36