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Show that the time-independent Schrödinger equation for a simple harmonic oscillating potential $$-\frac{\hbar^2}{2m}\frac{d^2 u}{dx^2}+\frac12 m\,\omega_0^2 x^2u=E\,u$$ can be written as $$\frac{d^2u}{dy^2}+(\alpha - y^2)u=0\tag{1}$$

where $$y=\sqrt{\frac{m\,\omega_0}{\hbar}}x$$ and $$\alpha=\frac{2E}{\hbar\,\omega_0}$$


So by my logic $$\frac{dy}{dx}=\sqrt{\frac{m\,\omega_0}{\hbar}}$$ and $$\frac{d^2y}{dx^2}=0$$ clearly something has gone wrong or I am going about this the wrong way. My lecturer mentioned in the lecture that:

From $$y=\sqrt{\frac{m\,\omega_0}{\hbar}}x\tag{2}$$ it follows that $$\fbox{$\frac{d}{dx}=\sqrt{\frac{m\,\omega_0}{\hbar}}\frac{d}{dy}$}\tag{3}$$

But how does $(3)$ follow from $(2)$?

I know that the boxed equation $(3)$ is correct as I have checked the printed notes for that lecture (for which the relevant parts are shown below):

Part of lecture notes


But that's just the first problem; even if I understood how obtain $(3)$, I still don't understand how to proceed to derive $(1)$.

The only thing I could think to do is take the second derivative of $(3)$ with respect to $x$ such that
$$\frac{d}{dx}\frac{d}{dx}=\frac{d^2}{dx^2}=\frac{d}{dx}\sqrt{\frac{m\,\omega_0}{\hbar}}\frac{d}{dy}$$ and once again I am left confused as this approach doesn't appear to be getting me any closer to deriving $(1)$.

I don't doubt that I am likely missing something very simple here, but at the moment I have no idea what that is.

Could someone please provide me with some hints or advice on how to derive $(1)$ and what operations where carried out to obtain $(3)$?


Kindest regards.

BLAZE
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2 Answers2

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Your first mistake was $$ \frac{dy}{dx} = c $$ what you should be writing $$ \frac{d}{dx} = \frac{dy}{dx}\frac{d}{dy} $$ quite a difference.

To apply this twice we compute $$ \frac{d}{dx}\frac{du}{dx} = \frac{dy}{dx}\frac{d}{dy}\left(\frac{dy}{dx}\frac{du}{dy}\right) $$ which using $c = \frac{dy}{dx}$ we can compute $$ \frac{d^2u}{dx^2} = c\frac{d}{dy}\left( c\frac{du}{dy}\right) = c^2\frac{d^2u}{dy^2} $$ which should work out to what you require.

Now you may ask, why do I use $\frac{dy}{dx} = c$ in the latter expression when I stated that this was wrong ? Well, the change of variables (as per the comments) does contain the derivative $\frac{dy}{dx}$ which is the straight forward derivative of the expression $y = cx$.

BLAZE
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Chinny84
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  • Thank you for your answer. Why is $\dfrac{dy}{dx}\ne c$? – BLAZE Nov 08 '16 at 12:46
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    the statement in itself is not wrong - but you are changing variables and you change the variables by the rule I expressed above. – Chinny84 Nov 08 '16 at 12:49
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    I find it easier to look at what is $\frac{du}{dx}$ is in terms of $y$ this means working out the derivative of $u(y(x))$ to do this you use the chain rule - so we have $$\frac{du}{dx} =\frac{dy}{dx}\frac{du}{dy}$$ so looking at the operator part I.e "ignore" the $u$. this is how my physicist brain computes changes of variables. – Chinny84 Nov 08 '16 at 12:58
  • Okay that was helpful. I am familiar with the chain rule; So you just cancel the $u$'s to get the formula in your answer? – BLAZE Nov 08 '16 at 13:01
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    refrain from the term cancelling - a lot of mathematicians and physicists will get mad. I would use ignore just to see what the derivative (operator) looks like - which in this case is the expression for change of variable. – Chinny84 Nov 08 '16 at 13:03
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First of all: Your logic is sound. Since \begin{align*} y=\sqrt{\frac{m\,\omega_0}{\hbar}}x \end{align*} we obtain \begin{align*} \frac{dy}{dx}=\sqrt{\frac{m\,\omega_0}{\hbar}} \end{align*}

We consider starting from $u=u(x)$ and $y=y(x)$ the function $u=u(y(x))$ and obtain following variations of the same theme \begin{align*} \left(u(y(x))\right)^\prime&=u^\prime(y(x))y^\prime(x)\\ \frac{d}{dx}u(y(x))&=\frac{d}{dy}u(y)\frac{d}{dx}y(x)\\ \frac{du}{dx}&=\frac{du}{dy}\cdot\frac{dy}{dx}\\ \frac{du}{dx}&=\frac{du}{dy}\sqrt{\frac{m\,\omega_0}{\hbar}}\tag{1}\\ \end{align*} or just looking at the operator $\frac{d}{dx}$ without explicitly addressing the function $u$ the operator is to apply: \begin{align*} \frac{d}{dx}&=\sqrt{\frac{m\,\omega_0}{\hbar}}\frac{d}{dy} \end{align*} This explains the transition from (2) to (3).

$$ $$

The time-independent Schrödinger equation:

In order to normalise the equation we multiply according to the lecture notes both sides with $\frac{2}{\omega_0 \hbar}$ and obtain with $\alpha=\frac{2E}{\hbar\,\omega_0}$ \begin{align*} \frac{2}{\omega_0 \hbar}\left(-\frac{\hbar^2}{2m}\frac{d^2 u}{dx^2}+\frac12 m\,\omega_0^2 x^2u\right)&=\left(\frac{2}{\omega_0 \hbar}\right)E\,u\\ -\frac{\hbar}{\omega_0m}\frac{d^2 u}{dx^2}+\frac{m\,\omega_0}{\hbar} x^2u&=\alpha u\\ -\frac{\hbar}{\omega_0m}\frac{d^2 u}{dx^2}+y^2u&=\alpha u\\ \frac{\hbar}{\omega_0m}\frac{d^2 u}{dx^2}+\left(\alpha -y^2\right)u&=0\tag{2}\\ \end{align*}

Finally, since $u=u(y(x))$ we obtain from (1) \begin{align*} \frac{d^2 u}{dx^2}&=\frac{d}{dx}\left(\frac{du}{dx}\right)\\ &=\frac{d}{dx}\left(\frac{du}{dy}\cdot\frac{dy}{dx}\right)\\ &=\frac{d}{dx}\left(\frac{du}{dy}\cdot\sqrt{\frac{m\,\omega_0}{\hbar}}\right)\\ &=\sqrt{\frac{m\,\omega_0}{\hbar}}\cdot\frac{d}{dx}\left(\frac{du}{dy}\right)\tag{3}\\ &=\sqrt{\frac{m\,\omega_0}{\hbar}}\cdot\frac{d^2u}{dy^2}\cdot\frac{dy}{dx}\\ &=\sqrt{\frac{m\,\omega_0}{\hbar}}\cdot\frac{d^2u}{dy^2}\cdot\sqrt{\frac{m\,\omega_0}{\hbar}}\\ &=\frac{m\,\omega_0}{\hbar}\cdot\frac{d^2u}{dy^2}\\ \end{align*}

and we conclude from (2) \begin{align*} \frac{d^2u}{dy^2}+(\alpha - y^2)u=0 \end{align*}

Observe in (3) we apply $\frac{d}{dx}$ to $\frac{du}{dy}$ similarly as we did before when applying $\frac{d}{dx}$ to $u$.

BLAZE
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Markus Scheuer
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  • Sorry it took me a while to respond. Thank you very much for an excellent answer. I have two questions for you: Firstly, what do you mean by "normalise the equation" as mentioned in the second quote? Or put in another way, what does "normalise" mean? Secondly, this question has lead to me asking another question that is strongly linked to this post; Would you mind taking a look at it please? Many thanks and best regards! – BLAZE Nov 13 '16 at 00:08
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    @BLAZE: You're welcome! Please, don't take the term "normalisation" too technical. Usually polynomials are called normalised when the coefficient of the highest power is equal to $1$. Here it's a somewhat sloppy formulation meaning that the coefficient of the highest derivative is set equal to $1$. – Markus Scheuer Nov 13 '16 at 16:26
  • Congratulations on earning the bounty. Regards. :-) – BLAZE Mar 18 '17 at 01:02
  • @BLAZE: Thanks a lot for granting the bounty! :-) – Markus Scheuer Mar 18 '17 at 07:37