This problem is mentioned in this one, but I think it deserves some attention on its own. So here it is:
For any integers $n,m > 0$:
If $2mn(n+m)(n-m)$ divides $(n^2 + m^2 + 1)(n^2 + m^2 - 1)$, then is it true that $n,m$ are a pair of consecutive Pell-numbers, where the Pell-numbers are given recursively by:
$P_0 = 0$
$P_1 = 1$
$P_{n+2} = 2P_{n-1} + P_{n-2}$.
The converse is definitely true.
See Wikipedia article on Pell numbers, and the OEIS page.
Remark:
Notice that this implies the quotient of $(n^2 + m^2 + 1)(n^2 + m^2 - 1)$ by $2mn(n+m)(n-m)$ is then 2 if $m < n$ and $-2$ if $n < m$. So that in the case when $n,m$ are coprime we have following, if the above is true:
Let $(a,b,c)$ be a primitive Pythagorean triple. If $ab \mid c^2 - 1$, then $2ab = c^2 - 1$. -