Why there is no x such that $x \equiv 3$(mod 8) and $x \equiv 1$(mod 4)?
Is it because $(4, 8) \neq 1$, which contradict the Chinese Remainder Theorem?
But why?
Why there is no x such that $x \equiv 3$(mod 8) and $x \equiv 1$(mod 4)?
Is it because $(4, 8) \neq 1$, which contradict the Chinese Remainder Theorem?
But why?
Note $\, x\equiv 3\pmod 8\,\Rightarrow\ 4\mid 8\mid x-3\,\Rightarrow\, x\equiv 3\pmod 4.\ $ Thus $\, 3\equiv x\equiv 1\pmod 4$ yields the contradiction that $\, 4\mid 3-1.\,$
Similarly if $\, x\equiv a\pmod m,\ x\equiv b\pmod n\,$ then $\, a\equiv x\equiv b\pmod d\,$ for $\,d =\gcd(m,n),\ $ so $\,d\mid a-b\,$ is a necessary condition for the existence of a solution.
This compatibility condition is also a sufficient condition for the existence of solution, and it extends pairwise to any number of congruences - see this answer for a constructive proof (which depends on the key fact that gcd distributes over lcm).
It does not "contradict", just not "comply" with the necessary conditions for CRT to hold.
For your question, just think of what is asked of $x$ : $x=1+4k$ and $x=3+8k'$, with $k$ and $k'$ integers. It leads to finding an integer which is at the same time odd and even.
This outcome is not possible when the modulus are co-primes, because of the Bezout theorem.
If $x \equiv 3 \pmod 8$, then we can write $x = 8n + 3$ for some integer $n$.
Thus $x = 4(2n) + 3 = 4m + 3$ for some integer $m$, and hence $x \equiv 3 \pmod 4$.
Since $4$ and $8$ are not co-prime, the CRT does not apply.