I have just started reading the book "Measure, Integral and Probability" 2nd ed. by Marek Capinski and Ekkehard Kopp.
The book starts out with a discussion on the Riemann Integral, its scope and limitations. An example is given.
The example results in an upper Riemann sum as:
$\displaystyle \frac{1}{n^3}\sum_{i=1}^n ({2i^2 - i})$
The authors then state that the this sum converges to a value and that this is easily seen.
How can i find the value to which this sum converges?