Does $x$ irreducible in $\Bbb{Z}[i] \implies ~N(x) $ is prime?
I know the converse holds but I'm not sure about this direction?
I tried proving it but couldn't figure it out.
Does $x$ irreducible in $\Bbb{Z}[i] \implies ~N(x) $ is prime?
I know the converse holds but I'm not sure about this direction?
I tried proving it but couldn't figure it out.
There are three kinds of irreducibles $\pi\in\mathbb{Z}[i]$. The are, up to unit:
So the irreducibles that fail to have prime norm are exactly the primes in $\mathbb{Z}$ that don't "split", i.e. the ones that are still prime in $\mathbb{Z}[i]$, which are exactly the primes which are $3\pmod{4}$.
This classification also answers your question in the comments.