According to matrix cookbook
$$\frac{\partial \det Y}{\partial x} = \det (Y) \text{Tr}\left( Y^{-1} \frac{\partial Y}{\partial x}\right) $$
Now assume $Y$ is a variance covariance matrix $\Sigma$, which is by definition symmetric and positive definite. Furthermore assume we derive for $x=\Sigma$. Does it follow that
$$\frac{\partial \det \Sigma}{\partial \Sigma} = \det (\Sigma) \text{Tr}\left( \Sigma^{-1} \frac{\partial \Sigma}{\partial \Sigma}\right) = \det (\Sigma) \text{Tr}( \Sigma^{-1}) ?$$
In a related post I asked a similar question and a reply seems to suggest (and the reply seems to give the correct result)
$$\frac{\partial \det \Sigma}{\partial \Sigma} = \det (\Sigma) \Sigma^{-1}.$$
So I wonder if I make a mistake in the second row of equations of if this is a special case due to the properties of $\Sigma$.