If $\lim_{n \to \infty}a_n=a$ then $\lim_{n\to \infty}\frac{a_1+a_2+...+a_n}{n}=a$ I need to prove this, and was thinking to use some inequality related to the geometric and harmonic, but unfortunately my efforts did not pan out as hoped. Does anyone know how this would be proven?
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Martin Sleziak
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Roger Federer
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Cesaro sum $\ddot\smile$ – Simply Beautiful Art Oct 22 '16 at 13:08
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6See here: http://math.stackexchange.com/questions/207910/prove-convergence-of-the-sequence-z-1z-2-cdots-z-n-n-of-cesaro-means – Robert Z Oct 22 '16 at 13:09