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My goal is to show that groups of order < 6 are abelian in a more elegant way than just listing all possible Latin squares. To do this, my first problem where I got stuck, is how to prove that all groups of order p prime are abelian. Can someone help me?

Thanks & have a nice evening!

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The proof of this is literally anywhere with just a Google search. It follows from Lagrange's theorem: any non-identity element $x$ generates a subgroup, which has order either $1$ or $p$; but it cannot be $1$ since $x$ is not the identity element. Can you finish it from here?

Alex Mathers
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For small groups follow the strategy that is laid out here and complies with the very basic axioms of a group: A group with five elements is Abelian. (Scroll a bit down to see my solution, that also works for groups of order 2, 3 and 4.) You will not need the fact that groups of prime order are cyclic (hence abelian).

Nicky Hekster
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  • Thanks very much - that's it, nice way for proofing this. For order 2, 3 and 4 it's even easier: just suppose that ab nonequal ba for some elements a and b not the identity element and hence we have already 5 different elements in the group. – NamedFormula Oct 13 '16 at 09:44
  • You are welcome! If you deem my answer being the right one, please tick it as such, being a habit at this Math StackExchange community. Thanks! – Nicky Hekster Oct 13 '16 at 10:23
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You do not even need to go there.

Another way to prove it is that a finite ordered non-abelian group must have order 6 or greater which can be done like this

if $|G|=1$ then it's trivial, So assume $|G|>1$ then there exist $a\in G$, but all groups have inverses so $a^{-1}\in G$, which means $|G|\geq 3$, but this case would be abelian so there must be another element $b\in G$ and equally so it's inverse, so we have that $|G|\geq 5$, But we also have that $ab\in G$, which would give one of the following $ab=a$, $ab=b$, $ab=e$, $ab=a^{-1}$ or $ab=b^{-1}$, the first ones can be eliminated as they imply that either $a$ or $b$ are identity or inverse, the latter two can be eliminated for the reason that they would make it abelian as we get $aba=a^2b=e$, with left and right a multiplication on $ab=a^{-1}$. This gives us that $ab=ba$ for the elements which clearly doesn't work as it is a non-abelian group and the remainder would be the same (with the inverses etc), so there must exist some other element then. So $|G|\geq 6$

Zelos Malum
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  • I think that doesn't work, however thanks for the idea of this way, but I think it omits the possibility that in a non-abelian group, only one element has to be different from its inverse, for the others it may be the same. So your way doesn't work like that for order 4, I think. – NamedFormula Oct 13 '16 at 09:42
  • It works all the way – Zelos Malum Oct 13 '16 at 09:43
  • So, why do we have order > 4? the inverse of the additional element b could be itself, so we have only 4 elements, not as you stated at least 5; or is there a fault in thinking this way? – NamedFormula Oct 13 '16 at 09:50
  • Because then it is abelian, let $e,a,a^{-1},b$ be our group, then we have $e$ commute with all, $a,a^{-1}$ with each other and $b$ with itself, we also have $ab$ must be in it, but it can only be one of the 4 elements, and all possibilities can be seen resulting in either being the inverse or commuting. – Zelos Malum Oct 13 '16 at 09:56
  • In short, the alternatives are either than all elements are not unique or it is abelian – Zelos Malum Oct 13 '16 at 10:03
  • Ok, now I understand it, thanks a lot! – NamedFormula Oct 13 '16 at 20:22
  • Welcome, considerbaccepting it then – Zelos Malum Oct 14 '16 at 03:04