I often hear people saying that all of mathematics can be formalized within ZFC. But I've also seen people who deny that, for example category theorists who work in an area where one might deal with say large categories. But everybody agrees that a large part of math (based on sets, not dealing with proper classes) can be formalized in ZFC.
Why can one be so sure? I mean, in practice we are using intuitive logic and set theory. Couldn't it be that we use an axiom of which we think it's obvious and evident, but which in fact isn't provable from ZFC?