Is it true that every integral domain can be obtained as ring of holomorphic function of some domain?
No, this is not true. For one thing, this would imply an absolute upper bound on the cardinality of an integral domain.
Moreover, this connection is not really the historical reason for the name, see
where does the term "integral domain" come from?
Also what might be the possible reason for using the terminology 'entire ring' for integral domain?
I do not know what the actual reasoning was, but a a reason might be that "integral" is used in a different sense in ring theory, too, namely an element is called integral over a ring $R$ if it is the root of a monic polynomial over $R$; and, a domain is called integrally closed if it contains all the integral elements from its quotient-field.
Both in French and in German two distinct words are used to signify those two notions, and one might want to follow the same practice in English.
Namely "intègre" (F) and "integer" (G) for "integral" as in "integral domain" and "entier" (F) and "ganz" (G) for "integral" as in "intrgal element."
What is strange though is that if this would be adopted the English usage would be somehow just the other way round relative to the French and German one, in that "entire" would not correspond to "entier" and "ganz."
It might be further worth noting that "intègre" (F) and "integer" (G) rather evoke the meaning "integrous," which would not be completely non-intuitive either (though it is not the historical motivation in German).