Let $X_1$,$X_2$ be iid r.v, with Exp(a) distribution. Show that $X_{(2)}-X_{(1)}$ and $X_{(1)}$ are independent and find their distributions. ($X_{(1)}$ denotes the order statistic)
Their individual distributions can be easily found, where $X_{(2)}-X_{(1)} \in Exp(a)$ and $X_{(1)} \in Exp(a/2)$. I am struggling to show independence though, since I would think that this would require knowing the joint distribution of $X_{(2)}-X_{(1)}$ and $X_{(1)}$. Am I missing something obvious?
I am mostly interested in hints, not full solutions if possible!