Let $G$ be a finite group and $K,H$ be two normal subgroups of $G$ such that $N \cong K$. Then can we say that $G/N \cong G/K$?
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you should at least try something before dumping questions on us. Questions such as this one are likely to be closed. – Ittay Weiss Sep 24 '16 at 08:26
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See also https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/7720 – Watson Sep 24 '16 at 09:05
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This possible duplicate was found here. – Watson Sep 24 '16 at 09:06
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1thank you very much dear Watson – Hana Sep 24 '16 at 09:57