Every times I look at this formula I get astonished: $$\frac{1}{\pi} = \frac{2 \sqrt 2}{99^2} \sum_{k=0}^\infty \frac{(4k)!}{k!^4} \frac{26390k+1103}{396^{4k}}.$$
Can someone give me an idea of the reasoning behind that formula?
Every times I look at this formula I get astonished: $$\frac{1}{\pi} = \frac{2 \sqrt 2}{99^2} \sum_{k=0}^\infty \frac{(4k)!}{k!^4} \frac{26390k+1103}{396^{4k}}.$$
Can someone give me an idea of the reasoning behind that formula?