In an answer to 'What does $2^x$ really mean when $x$ is not an integer?' Álvaro Lozano-Robledo explains that we can understand real number exponents in terms of the definition of $\log(x)$:
$$\log(x) := \int_1^x \frac{1}{t} dt$$
I understand that one can then define $e^x$ as the inverse function of $\log(x)$. In his answer he then shows that what $a^x$ really means for any real number base $a > 0$ and exponent $x$ can be defined in terms of $\log(x)$ and its inverse $e^x$ in the following way:
$$a^x = e^{\log(a^x)} = e^{x\log(a)}$$
But this definition seems to rely on the logarithm power property $\log(a^x)=x\log(a)$. My question is, how can this property be proven without already knowing what $a^x$ means for real numbers $a > 0$ and $x$?
My attempt at answering the question before posting it here yielded the following:
ProofWiki has a proof of the logarithm power property that depends on a proof of the power rule for derivatives with real number index. However, this last proof also seems to assume that the meaning of $a^x$ for real numbers $a > 0$ and $x$ is known.
P.S. I have not yet had the time to study calculus/analysis formally. Which means that this might all become obvious after reading some rigorous analysis book.