The statement is following :
$E, F$ are measurable subsets in $\mathbb{R}$ which have positive measure. Then prove that $E+F=\left\{ x+y\ :\ x\in E,\ y\in F\right\}$ contains an interval.
This is a problem 30 in Stein's Real analysis. I already read the proof of this by using convolusion which is here.(This problem is so-called Steinhaus theorem) Moreover, I proved that the previous problems number 28 and 29 in the book. My goal is applying the same technique to above one, using the technique in problem number 29 :
First, by problem number 28, $ \exists I^F$ and $I^E$ such that $$m(E\cap I^{E})\geq{\displaystyle \frac{9}{10}m(I^{E})} \text{ and } m(F\cap I^{F})\ge{\displaystyle \frac{9}{10}m(I^{F})}.$$ Let $E_{0}= E\cap I^{E}$ and $F_{0}= F\cap I^{F}$ and let $e_{0}, f_{0}$ : center of $I^{E}, I^{F}$, respectively.
Suppose $E_{0}+F_{0}$ does not contain an interval centered at $e_{0}+f_{0}$. Then $\exists a$ : small such that $E_{0}\cap(e_{0}+f_{0}+a-F_{0})=\phi$. But, $E_{0}\cup(e_{0}+f_{0}+a-F_{0})\subset I^{E}\cup(e_{0}+f_{0}+a-I^{F})$. Measure of left hand side is more than $\frac{9}{10}(m(I^{E})+m(I^{F}))$ but the measure of Right had side is slightly less than $\max(m(I^{E}),m(I^{F}))$.
And that's it. I stopped here. I can't make any contradiction. I thought that if I can make measure of $I^E and I^F$ are equal, then I prove the problem but this one is also a big problem.
Anyone can comment on this?