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There are some people defined the hypothesis of discussing derivative of a function $f:E\rightarrow\mathbb{R}$ at $c$ to be that $c$ must in $E$ and be a limit(cluster) point of $E$, namely $c\in E\cap E'$, rather than simply put $E$ is an open interval containing $c$. I think there should be some terminology just describe this kind of the point. (e.g. $c$ is a XX point of $E$.) I have several analysis books, but didn't find one.

Another question, due to the difference of the definition of the derivative in terms of difference requirement on $c$. There are really some different description of the consequent theorems may occur. For example, if one takes the definition that $c\in E\cap E'$ in order to discuss the derivative of a function, than $f:[0,1]\rightarrow\mathbb{R}$ defined by $f(x)=x$ is differentiable at $1$, but if adopting the definition just like in the introductory calculus book(open interval containing $c$), then he should have slightly change the definition, or give another new definition(e.g. defining a one-sided derivative) in order to make the function be differentiable at $1$. And also, if one adapts the former, a common theorem in calculus that "if $f$ is differentiable at $c$ and $f$ has a relative extremum at $c$, then $f'(c)=0$" should be rewrite, since $f:[0,1]\rightarrow\mathbb{R}$ defined by $f(x)=x$ suits the antecedent, but $f'(1)\neq 0$. I haven't learned PDE or functional analysis or other advanced courses yet, so I don't have the whole picture and view to figure out which is better.

MMASRP63
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Eric
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1 Answers1

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Here's a general approach which I think might prove helpful.

First, we define what we mean by a limit:

Let $(M,d)$ and $(N,\rho)$ be metric spaces. Let $A \subseteq M$, let $f: A \to N$, let $a \in M$ be an accumulation point of $A$, and let $b \in N$. If given any $\epsilon \in \mathbf R^+$ there exists some $\delta \in \mathbf R^+$ such that for all $x \in A$ we have the following:$$0 \lt d(x,a) \lt \delta \Rightarrow \rho(f(x),b) \lt \epsilon$$then we say that the limit of $f(x)$ as $x$ approaches $a$ is equal to $b$, and we write $$\lim_{x \to a}f(x)=b$$

Note that when $M=\mathbf R$ (using the usual Euclidean metric), this definition naturally handles limits at the endpoints of $A$. We can force consideration of one-sided limits by restricting the domain appropriately and using the subspace metric, so no additional definitions should be needed for those cases.

Next, we define what it means for a function to be continuous:

Let $(M,d)$ and $(N,\rho)$ be metric spaces. Let $A \subseteq M$, let $f: A \to N$, and let $a \in A$. We say that $f$ is continuous at $a$ if either of the following holds:$$1)\; a\, \text{is not an accumulation point of} \,A$$ $$\text{or}\; 2)\; \lim_{x \to a}f(x)=f(a)$$

Note that the first option ($a$ is not an accumulation point of $A$) gives us continuity for "free" at isolated points of the domain. It can be shown that this definition of continuity is equivalent to characterizations involving sequences, pre-images of open sets, and pre-images of closed sets.

Finally, we can define differentiability:

Let $\mathbf K$ be either $\mathbf R$ or $\mathbf C$. Let $X \subseteq \mathbf K$ and let $a \in X$ be an accumulation point of $X$. Let $E$ be a normed vector space over $\mathbf K$. A function $f: X \to E$ is called differentiable at $a$ if the limit$$\lim_{x \to a}\frac{f(x)-f(a)}{x-a}$$exists in $E$.

Again, when $\mathbf K = \mathbf R$, we can handle one-sided derivatives by restricting the domain appropriately and using the subspace metric.

So, to answer the first part of your question: yes, we need to have a point be an accumulation point (i.e., a cluster point or a limit point) before we can talk about differentiability there.

As for the second part of your question, you're referring to this theorem attributed to Fermat, but you missed a critical part of hypothesis:

Suppose that $X \subseteq \mathbf R$ and $f: X \to \mathbf R$ has a local extremum at $a \in \text{int}(X)$. If $f$ is differentiable at $a$, then $f'(a)=0$.

To answer the second part of your question: the fact that $a$ is an interior point of $X$ is a critical part of the hypothesis. The theorem simply doesn't hold without it. So your example, which has $X = [0,1]$ and $a=1$, a boundary point, doesn't contradict the theorem.

I hope this helps.

MMASRP63
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    Thanks!! It helps! I have some questions. (i)Why is the set $E$ you mentioned in the definition a "normed" vector space? Doesn't it need to have a metric, rather than the norm? (ii) So is the more general definition proved more convenient in some situations? Is the convenience of discussing one-sided derivative included? – Eric Aug 28 '16 at 18:01
  • (iii) How would you define the critical points with this general definition of derivatives? In calculus books, they defined as being either of these: (Type A)$f$ is diff. at $c$ and $f'(c)=0$ (they consided the domain only to be an interval, and endpoints are always non-differentiable due to their definition) (Type B)endpoints (Type C)non-diff. points. For our general definition, is it good to modify it to be (A) $c\in\text{int} E$ and $f'(c)=0$ (B) $\partial E$ (C)non-diff. points? But these categories seemed to have a huge overlapping cases, that I'm not sure if it's good for our purpose. – Eric Aug 28 '16 at 18:02
  • @Eric (i) The reason $E$ is a normed vector space rather than just a general metric space is that we need to be able to add for the expression $f(x) - f(a)$ to make sense. In a general metric space, we may not have addition (or any other binary operation) even defined, but of course in a vector space we do. Then, remember that every norm on a vector space induces a natural metric on that space defined by $d(x,y) = \Vert x - y \Vert$. So a normed vector space is also a metric space, but we have the addition and scalar multiplication needed for the difference quotient to make sense. – MMASRP63 Aug 31 '16 at 01:07
  • @Eric (ii) I think it depends on your perspective. The more general definition encompasses all at once the usual definitions provided for differentiability of functions $\mathbf R \to \mathbf R$, $\mathbf C \to \mathbf C$, and $\mathbf R \to \mathbf R^n$. I think that's kind of nice. As for one-sided derivatives, I think they're sometimes over-emphasized. They're really a special feature of $\mathbf R$ since any point can be approached from only two directions. In more general settings the concept may not even make sense. – MMASRP63 Aug 31 '16 at 01:13
  • @Eric (iii) That's a good question. I'm not sure what the best answer is. When I first learned calculus, critical points were defined as those points in the domain of $f$ where either $f'(x)=0$ or $f$ fails to be differentiable. Then, we were told to look for extreme values of $f$ at both critical points and endpoints (of the domain). I think this approach is still fine using the more general analysis definitions I provided in my answer, but I don't know whether it's optimal. We'll have to wait for someone else on the site to chime in. Or maybe you could ask another question? – MMASRP63 Aug 31 '16 at 01:17
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    Thanks for replying! For (i), can I just say "metric vector space"? Since what we really need is a vector space with a metric, rather than a vector space with a norm(although a metric can be defined straightly by a norm), and in fact, it seemed that we don't even need a norm in this case. – Eric Sep 01 '16 at 19:16
  • @Eric That's a great question, and I'm not sure of the correct answer. It's probably worth posting a brand-new question in order to get a response. – MMASRP63 Sep 01 '16 at 21:37
  • Do you know where can find the corresponding Chain Rule statement and its proof with respect to this differentiability definition? – Eric Sep 14 '16 at 11:05
  • I adapted the definition from the book Analysis I by Herbert Amann and Joachim Escher, so the statement and proof of the chain rule in that book is probably what you're looking for. I highly recommend that book, by the way. – MMASRP63 Sep 15 '16 at 22:53
  • Thanks. I'll definitely get one! – Eric Sep 16 '16 at 02:52