I'm trying to derive a proof that, for discrete random variables $U$, $V$, $W$ with finite expectation, it holds that $$E[\ E[V\mid U,W]\mid W\ ] = E[V\mid W]. \qquad (1) $$ (I'm aware of the measure theory based proof, but I'm trying to find a proof that does without. The main difficulty I'm encountering is the additional conditioning on $W$; the proof of $E[ E[V\mid U] ] = E[V]$ is clear to me.)
Let $X(\Omega_X)$ be the range of RV $X$. The LHS of $(1)$ is itself a random variable, namely a function $f$ where \begin{align*} f(w_1) =& \sum_{(u,w) \in U(\Omega_U)\times V(\Omega_W)} E[\ V \mid U = u \wedge W = w]\ Pr[ U = u \wedge W = w \mid W = w_1 ]\\ =& \sum_{(u,w)} \sum_{v \in V(\Omega_V)} v \cdot Pr[ V = v \mid U = u \wedge W = w]\cdot Pr[ U = u \wedge W = w \mid W = w_1 ] \end{align*}
The RHS of $(1)$ is a function $g$ such that $$ g(w_1) = \sum_{v \in V(\Omega_V)} v \cdot Pr[\ V = v \mid W = w_1\ ]. $$ To proof $(1)$, we need to show that for all $w_1 \in W(\Omega_W)$ we have $$f(w_1) = g(w_1).$$ This is true if $$ Pr[ V = v \mid U = u \wedge W = w\ ] \cdot Pr[U = u \wedge W = w \mid W = w_1 ] = Pr[V = v \mid W = w_1 ], $$ but I couldn't progress from here. I have a feeling that my interpretation of the LHS is incorrect...