A question in my tutorial asks to use the fact (can be used without proof) that
$(a,b)=(a,c)=1 \Rightarrow (a,bc)=1$
to prove:
if $a^n \mid b^n$ then $a\mid b$.
I did the following, but my tutor marked it as wrong. I have tried to find the error without success.
May I know where is the error? Sincere thanks.
Assume $a^n \mid b^n$.
$b^n=a^n\cdot k$ , $k\in \mathbb{Z}$
Let $d:=(a,b)$.
$(\frac{a}{d},\frac{b}{d})=1$
By the fact above, $(\frac{a}{d},(\frac{b}{d})^{n-1})=1$.
Note that since $(\frac{b}{d})^n=(\frac{a}{d})^n\cdot k$, so $\frac{a}{d}\mid(\frac{b}{d})(\frac{b}{d})^{n-1}$. This, in addition to $(\frac{a}{d},(\frac{b}{d})^{n-1})=1$, yields $\frac{a}{d}\mid\frac{b}{d}$. (Euclid's Lemma)
Hence $a\mid b$.