Let $R$ be a ring and $M$, $N$ finitely generated free modules modules over $R$. Let $A$ be a matrix representing a homomorphism $f: M \rightarrow N$. We know that the map $f$ is injective if and only if the columns of $A$ are linearly independent.
Now suppose $f$ is NOT injective. By the first isomorphism theorem, we know that the induced map $\bar{f}: M/ \ker f \rightarrow N$ is injective. But the matrix representing $f$ and $\bar{f}$ is the same, right? Then how does the above make sense?