Why is $10^k - 1$ divisible by $9$?

Question

I know it is obvious that $10^k-1$ will always be divisible by $9$ for some integer $k$, but I am curious how to actually prove this.

$$10^k - 1 \equiv 0 \bmod 9$$

$$10^k \equiv 1 \bmod 9$$

... and I have no idea where to go from here.

Start from $10\equiv 1\pmod{9}$. – André Nicolas Jul 25 '16 at 00:20 — André Nicolas, Jul 25 '16 at 00:20

score 14 · Answer 1 · answered Jul 25 '16 at 00:20

14

Other Way $$10^k-1=(10-1)(10^{k-1}+10^{k-2}+\cdots+1)$$

answered Jul 25 '16 at 00:20

Behrouz Maleki

11,182

9999...9=9x1111...1 – Widawensen Jul 28 '16 at 08:22

score 6 · Accepted Answer · answered Jul 25 '16 at 00:20

6

It's just that $10$ is $1$ modulo $9$, and modulo being compatible with multiplication. So $10^k \equiv 1^k \equiv 1 \mod 9$.

More generally this shows that $(a+1)^k \equiv 1 \mod a$. Indeed, writing it this way suggests another proof:

Expanding $(a+1)^k$ using the binomial theorem one see it is of the form $1+ a N$ for some integer $N$.

answered Jul 25 '16 at 00:20

quid

42,135

How do we know that the congruence holds in exponentiation? Is it always true that if $a \equiv b \bmod c$ then $a^k \equiv b^k \bmod c$ – KaliMa Jul 25 '16 at 00:34
Yes this is always true. More generally it is true that $a\equiv b \mod n$ and $c \equiv d \mod n$ then $ac \equiv bd \mod n$. See for instance this answer for basic rules for congruence – quid Jul 25 '16 at 00:38

score 4 · Answer 3 · answered Jul 25 '16 at 00:22

4

Since you've tagged modular arithmetic: $$\begin{align*}10 \equiv 1 \pmod{9} \implies 10^k &\equiv 1^k \pmod{9} \\ 10^k &\equiv 1 \pmod{9} \\ 10^k -1 &\equiv 0\pmod{9}\end{align*}$$

answered Jul 25 '16 at 00:22

Zain Patel

16,802

Asinomás · Answer 4 · 2016-07-25T00:26:51.507

3

The question seems to be:

Why is $\underbrace{ 99\dots 99}_n$ a multiple of $9$?

It is clear, since it is $\underbrace{ 11\dots 11}_n\times 9$

edited Jul 25 '16 at 00:26

answered Jul 25 '16 at 00:21

Asinomás

105,651

Yes, that is my question. I am asking how you'd prove this formally without noticing the obvious (that $10^k-1$ is all $9$'s) – KaliMa Jul 25 '16 at 00:24
I added a bit, maybe that makes it simpler to understand. – Asinomás Jul 25 '16 at 00:27

score 2 · Answer 5 · answered Jul 25 '16 at 00:57

By induction: When $k = 1$, $10^k - 1 = 9$ is divisible by $9$.

Now suppose $k \geq 2$, and $10^{k-1}-1$ is divisible by $9$. By induction, we can write $10^{k-1} - 1 = 9a$ for some integer $a$. Then $$10^k - 10 = 90a$$ Add $9$ to both sides: $$10^k - 1 = 90a + 9 = 9(10a+1)$$ so $10^k - 1$ is divisible by $9$.

score 1 · Answer 6 · answered Jul 25 '16 at 00:48

When a question involves specific number (in this case $10$) one has to use special property of that number.

The special property of 10 relevant to our interest here is that it is one more than 9. Now we can use binomial theorem to expand
$10^k =(9+1)^k$. In the binomial expansion on RHS except the final term $1^k$ all other terms are multiples of powers of $9$. So moving that exceptional term to LHS we get $10^k-1$ is a multiple of $9$.

Why is $10^k - 1$ divisible by $9$?

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