Let a function $f(x)$ be algebraic if it satisfies an equation of the form $$c_n(x)(f(x))^n + c_{n-1}(x)(f(x))^{n-1} + \cdots + c_0(x)=0,$$ for $c_k(x)$ rational functions of $x$, and let $f$ be called transcendental if it is not algebraic. Is it possible to use this definition directly to show that $e^x$ is transcendental?
One way I have been considering for any complex number is this:
Let $x_0\in\mathbb{C}$ and $x_n=x_0+2\pi i n$, where $n\in\mathbb{Z}$. Hence $x_n\neq x_m$ for all $n\neq m$, but we do have $e^{x_n}=e^{x_m}$ for all $n,m\in\mathbb{Z}$ (since $e^{2\pi i n} = 1$ for all $n\in\mathbb{Z}$). But since the Implicit Function Theorem suggests there exists an exact algebraic formula for $x$ using the above definition of an algebraic function, then $e^x$ can not be algebraic since there are an infinite number of representations $x_n$ of $x$.